ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Exam Practice Questions
Question 1 of 5
Phenobarbital (luminal) is given to a client for a short treatment of anxiety. Which of the following results would indicate a therapeutic serum range of the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The therapeutic serum range for phenobarbital (luminal) in the treatment of anxiety is typically 5-10 mcg/ml. This range is considered effective in managing anxiety symptoms while minimizing the risk of side effects associated with higher levels of the medication. Lower serum levels may be ineffective in treating anxiety, while higher levels increase the risk of adverse effects. Therefore, maintaining the serum concentration within the range of 5-10 mcg/ml is optimal for therapeutic benefits with minimal risks.
Question 2 of 5
A patient is receiving thrombolytic therapy, and the nurse monitors the patient for adverse effects. What is the most common undesirable effect of thrombolytic therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most common undesirable effect of thrombolytic therapy is bleeding, both internal and superficial. Thrombolytic agents work by dissolving blood clots, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Patients receiving thrombolytic therapy should be closely monitored for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, petechiae, hematomas, or gastrointestinal bleeding. It is essential for healthcare providers to assess and manage the risk of bleeding while administering thrombolytic therapy to minimize potential complications. Dysrhythmias, nausea and vomiting, and anaphylactic reactions are less common adverse effects of thrombolytic therapy compared to bleeding.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is receiving an IV infusion of heparin and was started on warfarin therapy the night
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement is that the heparin provides anticoagulation until therapeutic levels of warfarin are reached. Heparin has an immediate onset of action and is used initially to rapidly provide anticoagulation. Warfarin, on the other hand, has a delayed onset of action and requires several days to reach therapeutic levels in the bloodstream. Therefore, heparin is often overlapped with warfarin until the latter reaches its full anticoagulant effect. This overlapping strategy helps prevent a gap in anticoagulation and reduces the risk of blood clots. So, the statement that the heparin provides anticoagulation until therapeutic levels of warfarin are reached is the most correct in this case.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse notes in the patient™s medication orders that the patient will be taking ibutilide (Corvert). Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ibutilide (Corvert) is a class III antiarrhythmic medication primarily used for the treatment of atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter. It works by prolonging the action potential duration and refractory period of atrial tissue. Therefore, when a nurse notes that a patient will be taking ibutilide, it indicates that the patient likely has atrial fibrillation, a common arrhythmia characterized by rapid, irregular electrical activity in the atria of the heart.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following should be monitored for patients taking diuretics? (select all that apply)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.