Persistent nausea and vomiting related to pregnancy is indicative of

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperemesis gravidarum. This condition is characterized by severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, dehydration in pregnancy. It is more severe than typical morning sickness (choice A) and is not specific to multiple gestation (choice B). Hypertensive disorders (choice D) typically present with high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema, not just nausea and vomiting. Hyperemesis gravidarum requires medical intervention due to potential complications from dehydration and malnutrition.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. TB in pregnancy can lead to premature labor due to the fever experienced. Fever increases the risk of premature labor by triggering uterine contractions. Poor maternal appetite (A) and severe anemia (B) may impact the mother's health but are not directly linked to premature labor. Adverse reactions of anti-TB drugs (C) could potentially affect the mother's health but are not a direct cause of premature labor.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. In the initial stage of shock, the body tries to compensate for decreased perfusion by increasing heart rate to maintain blood flow to vital organs. Cyanosis (A) is a late sign of shock due to inadequate oxygenation. Sweat beads (C) are a non-specific response and not a defining feature of shock. Hypotension (D) typically occurs in the later stages of shock as the body's compensatory mechanisms start to fail. Tachycardia is the earliest and most consistent sign of shock, reflecting the body's attempt to maintain cardiac output.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Peritoneal bleeding. In a patient with a serious motor vehicle accident, a physical examination that includes rectovaginal examination, inspection of the urethral meatus, and palpation of pelvic landmarks is aimed at assessing for signs of internal bleeding, particularly peritoneal bleeding. Rectovaginal examination can detect blood in the rectouterine pouch, inspection of the urethral meatus can reveal blood at the urethral opening, and palpation of pelvic landmarks can identify tenderness or instability associated with internal bleeding. These findings would be indicative of potential peritoneal bleeding requiring urgent evaluation and management. Summary of other choices: B: Retroperitoneal bleeding - While physical examination findings may include signs such as flank ecchymosis or tenderness, the specific examinations mentioned are not typically performed to assess retroperitoneal bleeding. C: Paresthesia - Paresthesia refers to abnormal sensations like tingling or numbness and

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cephalopelvic disproportion. This condition occurs when the baby's head is too large to pass through the mother's pelvis during labor. This leads to obstructed labor, causing complications for both the mother and the baby. Maternal exhaustion (A) may occur as a result of prolonged labor but is not the primary cause of obstructed labor. Microsomic fetus (C) refers to a small baby and would not typically cause obstructed labor. Fetal exsanguination (D) is the loss of blood from the fetus and is not a common cause of obstructed labor. Cephalopelvic disproportion is the most common reason for obstructed labor as it directly affects the passage of the baby through the birth canal.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Placental parasitation is associated with Malaria prenatally because the Plasmodium parasite can infect the placenta through the bloodstream, leading to severe complications for both the mother and the fetus. This infection can result in low birth weight, preterm birth, and even stillbirth. Candidiasis, Tuberculosis, and Multiple gestation are not directly associated with placental parasitation. Candidiasis is a fungal infection, Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection, and Multiple gestation refers to carrying more than one fetus during pregnancy. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Malaria prenatally, due to the direct impact of Plasmodium parasite on the placenta and its implications on pregnancy outcomes.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immune globulin. Post bone marrow transplant, immune globulin is used to decrease the risk of graft-versus-host reaction by providing passive immunity. This helps in reducing the chances of the donor's immune cells attacking the recipient's tissues. Immune globulin does not suppress the immune system like cyclosporine (B) or systemic corticosteroids (D) do, which could increase the risk of infections post-transplant. Prophylactic antibiotics (C) are used to prevent infections but do not specifically target graft-versus-host reaction.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Truncus arteriosus. In this congenital heart defect, a single large blood vessel arises from the heart instead of the normal two separate vessels (aorta and pulmonary artery). This results in mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, leading to severe cyanosis and inadequate oxygen supply to the body. This condition is incompatible with life, causing immediate death after birth. A: Pulmonary stenosis and B: Aortic coarctation are also congenital heart defects but do not typically result in immediate death after birth. Pulmonary stenosis obstructs blood flow to the lungs, while aortic coarctation causes narrowing of the aorta. D: Ductus arteriosus is a normal fetal blood vessel that connects the pulmonary artery and the aorta but usually closes shortly after birth. Failure of closure can lead to health issues, but it is not typically a cause of immediate death after birth.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because in the context of neoadjuvant chemotherapy, a partial response means converting an unresectable tumor to a resectable one. This is crucial as it allows for successful surgical removal of the tumor. Choices A, B, and C do not accurately define partial response in the context of cancer therapy. A, stating 50% of patients demonstrating remission, is not specific to the change in resectability. B, mentioning 50% survival at 5 years, is more related to overall survival rather than the response to treatment. C, stating a reduction in tumor mass by >50%, does not necessarily imply a change in resectability status. Therefore, option D is the most appropriate definition of partial response in the given scenario.