ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Peritoneal dialysis is different from hemodialysis in that peritoneal dialysis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because peritoneal dialysis utilizes the patient's own semipermeable membrane, the peritoneal membrane, as the filtration surface. This allows for the exchange of waste products and excess fluids without the need for external dialysis equipment. Choice A is incorrect as peritoneal dialysis can be used for both acute and chronic kidney injury. Choice C is incorrect as peritoneal dialysis can help manage drug overdose and electrolyte imbalances. Choice D is incorrect as peritoneal dialysis can be used in cases of water intoxication to help remove excess fluids.
Question 2 of 5
A male client who has been taking propranolol (Inderal) for 18 months tells the nurse that the healthcare provider discontinued the medication because his blood pressure has been normal for the past three months. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ask the healthcare provider about tapering the drug dose over the next week. This answer is correct because propranolol is a beta-blocker, and abrupt discontinuation can lead to rebound hypertension, angina, or even myocardial infarction due to the sudden withdrawal of the medication. Tapering the drug dose over time allows the body to adjust gradually and reduces the risk of these adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because obtaining another antihypertensive prescription is not necessary if the client's blood pressure has been normal for the past three months. Choice B is incorrect because abruptly stopping the medication without tapering can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because simply reporting uncomfortable symptoms without taking appropriate action (tapering the drug dose) is not addressing the potential risks associated with abrupt discontinuation of propranolol.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse obtains a heart rate of 92 and a blood pressure of 110/76 prior to administering a scheduled dose of verapamil (Calan) for a client with atrial flutter. Which action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer the dose as prescribed. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker used to treat atrial flutter. The vital signs obtained are within normal range for this medication. A heart rate of 92 and blood pressure of 110/76 are not contraindications for administering verapamil. Option A is incorrect as calcium gluconate is not indicated in this situation. Option B is incorrect because the vital signs are stable and do not warrant withholding the medication. Option D is incorrect as there is no need to delay the administration of verapamil based on the vital signs provided.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse identifies a client's needs and formulates the nursing problem of, 'Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements, related to mental impairment and decreased intake, as evidenced by increasing confusion and weight loss of more than 30 pounds over the last 6 months.' Which short-term goal is best for this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct short-term goal for the client with imbalanced nutrition is choice B: Eat 50% of six small meals each day by the end of one week. This goal is specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART). By setting a goal for the client to eat a specific amount of meals within a defined timeframe, it allows for objective monitoring of progress. This goal also addresses the client's decreased intake and aims to improve their nutritional status gradually. Choice A is incorrect as verbalizing understanding does not directly address the client's nutritional needs. Choice C is not appropriate as it does not promote independence in meal consumption. Choice D is not the best short-term goal as it focuses on the outcome of weight gain rather than the process of increasing food intake. Overall, choice B is the most appropriate short-term goal as it targets the client's specific nutritional needs and provides a clear direction for intervention.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse plans a teaching session with a client but postpones the planned session based on which nursing problem?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice C: 1. Activity intolerance is a priority nursing problem postoperatively due to pain. 2. Postoperative pain can limit the client's ability to perform activities. 3. Addressing activity intolerance is crucial for promoting recovery and preventing complications. 4. Delaying the teaching session helps the nurse focus on managing pain first. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: - Choice A: Knowledge deficit can be addressed after managing immediate postoperative issues. - Choice B: Treatment regimen management is important but may not be as urgent as addressing activity intolerance related to pain. - Choice D: Noncompliance with exercise plan can be addressed once the client's pain and activity intolerance are under control.