ATI RN
Pediatric GI Disorders Test Bank Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Periodontitis is often associated with the following conditions EXCEPT
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Periodontitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the gums and damage to the surrounding structures of the teeth. In this case, option B, hypophosphatasia, is the correct answer as it is not typically associated with periodontitis. Leukocyte adhesion defects (Option A) can result in impaired immune response, making individuals more susceptible to periodontitis due to poor defense against bacteria in the gums. Leukemia (Option C) is a type of cancer that can affect the production of white blood cells, increasing the risk of infections like periodontitis. Vitamin D-resistant rickets (Option D) can lead to bone abnormalities, including changes in the structure of the jawbone, which can contribute to periodontal issues. In an educational context, understanding the associations between various medical conditions and periodontitis is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially in pediatric patients. Identifying these relationships can aid in early diagnosis, appropriate management, and prevention of complications related to periodontal disease in children. This knowledge is essential for pediatric dentists, pediatricians, and other healthcare providers who care for children with complex medical conditions.
Question 2 of 5
Contrast (usually barium) radiographic study of the esophagus and upper gastrointestinal tract has poor sensitivity and specificity in the diagnosis of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of pediatric GI disorders, contrast radiographic studies play a crucial role in diagnosing various conditions. In this case, the correct answer is C) GERD (Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease). Contrast studies are less sensitive and specific for GERD because it primarily involves assessing the function of the lower esophageal sphincter and detecting esophageal acid exposure, which are better evaluated through pH monitoring and endoscopy. A) Achalasia is a motility disorder characterized by impaired esophageal peristalsis and failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax. This condition is better diagnosed through manometry and endoscopy rather than contrast studies. B) Esophageal strictures are often visualized well on contrast studies, showing narrowing of the esophagus. However, the underlying cause of the stricture, such as inflammation, reflux, or external compression, may require additional tests like endoscopy for a definitive diagnosis. D) Gastric outlet obstruction involves a blockage that prevents the normal passage of stomach contents into the small intestine. While contrast studies can help identify the location and nature of the obstruction, other imaging modalities like ultrasound or CT scans may provide more detailed information. Educationally, understanding the limitations and strengths of diagnostic tools is essential for healthcare providers managing pediatric patients with GI disorders. It highlights the importance of selecting the most appropriate diagnostic tests based on the suspected condition to ensure accurate and timely diagnosis, ultimately leading to better patient outcomes.
Question 3 of 5
Oral and intravenous atropine sulfate (pyloric muscle relaxant) has been described when surgical treatment is not available for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis with a success rate of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Atropine sulfate, a pyloric muscle relaxant, is used as a temporary measure in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis when surgical intervention is not immediately available. The success rate of oral and intravenous atropine sulfate in treating this condition is around 60%. This success is attributed to the ability of atropine to inhibit acetylcholine receptors, which helps in relaxing the hypertrophied pyloric muscle and improving gastric outlet obstruction. Option A (20%) is incorrect because a success rate of 20% would indicate a much lower effectiveness of atropine sulfate in treating hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. This rate would not support the widespread use of atropine in this condition. Option B (40%) is also incorrect as a success rate of 40% would suggest a moderate effectiveness of atropine, which is lower than the actual success rate observed in clinical practice. Option D (80%) is incorrect because while atropine is effective in many cases, an 80% success rate would overestimate its efficacy in treating hypertrophic pyloric stenosis without surgical intervention. Educationally, understanding the success rate of atropine sulfate in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is crucial for healthcare professionals working with pediatric patients. It highlights the importance of early diagnosis and timely surgical intervention in cases where atropine treatment may not be sufficient. This knowledge can help in making informed clinical decisions and providing optimal care for children with GI disorders.
Question 4 of 5
Ileus is the failure of intestinal peristalsis caused by loss of coordinated gut motility without evidence of mechanical obstruction. In children, ileus accompanies the following metabolic abnormalities EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) hypermagnesemia. Ileus is the failure of intestinal peristalsis due to loss of coordinated gut motility without mechanical obstruction. Hypermagnesemia is not typically associated with causing ileus in children. A) Uremia is a metabolic abnormality that can lead to ileus in children due to its effects on gastrointestinal motility. B) Hypokalemia can disrupt smooth muscle function, including in the intestines, leading to ileus. C) Hypocalcemia can also affect smooth muscle function and is associated with intestinal motility issues like ileus. In an educational context, understanding the metabolic abnormalities that can contribute to ileus is crucial for healthcare providers caring for pediatric patients. Recognizing these associations can aid in prompt diagnosis and appropriate management of ileus in children, improving patient outcomes.
Question 5 of 5
A 10-year-old is being evaluated for possible appendicitis and complains of nausea and sharp abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant. An abdominal ultrasound is scheduled, and a blood count has been obtained. The child vomits, finds the pain relieved, and calls the nurse. Which should be the nurse's next action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse is to immediately notify the physician of the child's status (Option D). This is crucial because the child's symptoms of nausea and sharp abdominal pain, followed by vomiting and pain relief, could indicate a potential appendicitis which may require urgent medical attention or surgical intervention. By notifying the physician promptly, further evaluation and appropriate treatment can be initiated without delay, ensuring the child's well-being and safety. Option A is incorrect because while addressing the nausea with Zofran is important, it should not take precedence over informing the physician about the child's condition. Option B is also incorrect as administering an intravenous bolus without consulting the physician first could be unnecessary or even harmful. Option C is incorrect as the child's symptoms warrant further evaluation rather than immediate discharge. This scenario provides a valuable educational context for healthcare professionals to understand the critical importance of timely communication and collaboration in pediatric care, especially when dealing with potentially serious conditions like appendicitis. It underscores the significance of clinical judgment, prioritization, and effective communication in ensuring optimal patient outcomes.