ATI RN
Basic Principles of Long-Term Patient Care Developing a Therapeutic Community Questions
Question 1 of 5
Pericardial tamponade and hemorrhagic shock present very similarly in the pre-hospital environment. What is the best way, of those listed, to distinguish between the two diagnoses?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because pericardial tamponade can lead to jugular vein distension due to the increased pressure in the pericardium, which can impede blood flow back to the heart. Hemorrhagic shock, on the other hand, does not typically cause jugular vein distension. This difference in jugular vein distension is a key clinical finding to differentiate between the two conditions. Choice B is incorrect because cyanosis to the face, neck, and upper chest can be present in both pericardial tamponade and hemorrhagic shock, making it less specific for distinguishing between the two. Choice C is incorrect because pericardial tamponade can also lead to hypotension due to decreased cardiac output, while hemorrhagic shock can sometimes lead to compensatory hypertension in its early stages. Choice D is incorrect because the type of tachycardia (narrow vs. wide complex) is not a reliable or consistent finding to
Question 2 of 5
While conducting an EKG on your post-myocardial infarction patient, you note the presence of consistently wide QRS complexes greater than 120 ms in duration. What does this most likely indicate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: An intraventricular conduction delay or right/left bundle branch block. Wide QRS complexes (>120 ms) indicate a delay in ventricular depolarization, typically due to conduction abnormalities like bundle branch blocks. In the context of a post-myocardial infarction patient, this finding is common and suggests a conduction issue rather than an acute infarction (choice C). Complete heart block (choice B) would show dissociation between atria and ventricles, not wider QRS complexes. Choice D is incorrect as wide QRS complexes in a post-MI patient require further evaluation and potential intervention.
Question 3 of 5
You are on-scene with an apneic adult who collapsed one to two minutes prior to your arrival, according to bystanders. Which of the following endotracheal tube size ranges would be most appropriate for an average adult respiratory arrest patient who shows no signs of airway trauma or obstruction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 7.5-8.5 ET tube. For an adult with no signs of airway trauma or obstruction who is in respiratory arrest, this size range is appropriate. Here's the rationale: 1. Adult size: The range is suitable for an average adult. 2. Apneic adult: The patient is not breathing, requiring intubation for airway management. 3. Timeframe: With a recent collapse, the airway is likely still patent, so a smaller tube is sufficient. 4. No trauma or obstruction: There are no indications for a larger tube. Other choices are incorrect: A: 6.5-8.5 ET tube - This is too broad, and a specific size range is more appropriate. B: 9.0-10.0 ET tube - Larger sizes are not necessary if there are no airway issues. D: 4.5-6.5 ET tube - This size is too small
Question 4 of 5
You are preparing to perform synchronized electrical cardioversion with a biphasic defibrillator on your unstable adult patient who is experiencing supraventricular tachycardia at 160 beats per minute on the monitor. Which of the following initial energy settings would be recommended if he was exhibiting a narrow complex, regular supraventricular tachycardia, in which his palpable carotid pulse matches the rhythm on the monitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct initial energy setting for synchronized electrical cardioversion in a patient with stable supraventricular tachycardia is A: Synchronized cardioversion at 50-100 joules. This is because the patient is hemodynamically stable, with a narrow complex, regular rhythm, and a palpable carotid pulse matching the monitor. The recommended energy range for synchronized cardioversion in such cases is typically between 50-100 joules. This energy level is sufficient to terminate the tachyarrhythmia without causing unnecessary harm to the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because defibrillation energy settings (100-360 joules) are too high for a stable supraventricular tachycardia patient. Using such high energy levels could lead to unnecessary myocardial damage and potentially worsen the patient's condition. Therefore, the correct choice is A, as it aligns with the principles of providing effective treatment while minimizing the risk of
Question 5 of 5
A 42-year-old man injured in a motor vehicle crash suffers a closed head injury. His oxygen saturation decreases. The most appropriate next step is to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obtain a chest x-ray. When a patient with a closed head injury experiences a decrease in oxygen saturation, it is crucial to rule out potential causes such as a pneumothorax or lung contusion, which can compromise ventilation and oxygenation. A chest x-ray will help identify any underlying pulmonary issues. Decreasing tidal volume (B) or PEEP (C) may not address the specific cause of decreased oxygen saturation in this case. Increasing the rate of assisted ventilations (D) without addressing the underlying issue may not be effective and could potentially worsen the patient's condition.