ATI RN
Basic Principles of Long-Term Patient Care Developing a Therapeutic Community Questions
Question 1 of 5
Pericardial tamponade and hemorrhagic shock present very similarly in the pre-hospital environment. What is the best way, of those listed, to distinguish between the two diagnoses?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Jugular vein distension is a classic sign of pericardial tamponade due to impaired filling of the right heart chambers. In contrast, hemorrhagic shock typically does not cause jugular vein distension. This distinction is crucial in the pre-hospital setting to differentiate between the two conditions. Choice B is incorrect because cyanosis is not a reliable differentiating factor between pericardial tamponade and hemorrhagic shock. Choice C is incorrect because pericardial tamponade often leads to hypotension due to decreased cardiac output, whereas hemorrhagic shock can also present with hypotension. Choice D is incorrect as the type of tachycardia is not a definitive differentiator between the two conditions.
Question 2 of 5
While conducting an EKG on your post-myocardial infarction patient, you note the presence of consistently wide QRS complexes greater than 120 ms in duration. What does this most likely indicate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Wide QRS complexes greater than 120 ms indicate abnormal conduction in the ventricles. Step 2: An intraventricular conduction delay or bundle branch block can cause widened QRS complexes. Step 3: In post-myocardial infarction patients, conduction abnormalities like bundle branch blocks are common. Step 4: Choice A is correct as it aligns with the common occurrence of conduction delays post-MI. Step 5: Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to widened QRS complexes in this context.
Question 3 of 5
You are on-scene with an apneic adult who collapsed one to two minutes prior to your arrival, according to bystanders. Which of the following endotracheal tube size ranges would be most appropriate for an average adult respiratory arrest patient who shows no signs of airway trauma or obstruction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 7.5-8.5 ET tube. This size range is most appropriate for an average adult respiratory arrest patient with no signs of airway trauma or obstruction. Rationale: 1. Size range 7.5-8.5 is standard for adult males and females with average airway anatomy. 2. Choosing too small a tube (option D) can lead to inadequate ventilation. 3. Choosing too large a tube (options A and B) can cause trauma to the airway and increase the risk of complications. 4. Considering the patient has no signs of airway trauma or obstruction, a mid-range size tube (option C) provides a balance between effective ventilation and minimizing potential harm. In summary, option C is the most appropriate choice as it balances the need for effective ventilation while minimizing the risk of complications in an average adult respiratory arrest patient.
Question 4 of 5
You are preparing to perform synchronized electrical cardioversion with a biphasic defibrillator on your unstable adult patient who is experiencing supraventricular tachycardia at 160 beats per minute on the monitor. Which of the following initial energy settings would be recommended if he was exhibiting a narrow complex, regular supraventricular tachycardia, in which his palpable carotid pulse matches the rhythm on the monitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct initial energy setting for synchronized electrical cardioversion in this scenario is option A: Synchronized cardioversion at 50-100 joules. This is because the patient is stable with a narrow complex, regular supraventricular tachycardia, and synchronized cardioversion is indicated for this condition. The recommended starting energy range for synchronized cardioversion in this case is typically 50-100 joules. This energy setting is appropriate for converting supraventricular tachycardia back to sinus rhythm without causing unnecessary harm to the patient. Summary of other choices: - B: Defibrillation at 100 joules: Defibrillation is not indicated for stable supraventricular tachycardia; it is used for ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. - C: Synchronized cardioversion at 360 joules: This energy setting is too high for a stable patient with supraventricular tach
Question 5 of 5
A 42-year-old man injured in a motor vehicle crash suffers a closed head injury. His oxygen saturation decreases. The most appropriate next step is to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obtain a chest x-ray. In a closed head injury with decreased oxygen saturation, it is crucial to rule out potential concomitant injuries like a pulmonary contusion or pneumothorax. Obtaining a chest x-ray will help identify these conditions. Decreasing tidal volume (B) or PEEP (C) may worsen oxygenation. Increasing the rate of assisted ventilations (D) without addressing the underlying cause may not improve oxygen saturation.