Percentage of biliary atresia cases causing neonatal cholestasis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the prevalence of biliary atresia and its association with neonatal cholestasis is crucial for early detection and intervention. The correct answer is C) 25% for the percentage of biliary atresia cases causing neonatal cholestasis. Rationale for C: Biliary atresia is a rare condition where the bile ducts are blocked or absent, leading to cholestasis in neonates. Research indicates that approximately 25% of cases of neonatal cholestasis are attributed to biliary atresia. This statistic highlights the importance of considering biliary atresia in the differential diagnosis of neonatal cholestasis to expedite treatment and improve outcomes. Rationale for others: A) 30% - This option is incorrect as the actual percentage is slightly lower at 25%. B) 40% - This percentage is higher than the actual prevalence of biliary atresia causing neonatal cholestasis. D) 70% - This option is significantly higher than the correct percentage, emphasizing the need for accurate knowledge in pediatric nursing practice. Educational context: In pediatric nursing, recognizing the signs and symptoms of biliary atresia and understanding its impact on neonatal cholestasis is essential for providing quality care to infants. By knowing the prevalence rates, nurses can advocate for timely diagnostic testing and interventions to support positive patient outcomes. This question underscores the significance of evidence-based practice and clinical reasoning in pediatric nursing.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding normal vital signs for different age groups is crucial for early identification of potential health issues. Tachypnea in an 8-month-old infant is defined as an increased respiratory rate. The correct answer is B) 50 breaths/minute. This rate is considered tachypnea in this age group as the normal respiratory rate for infants is typically between 30-60 breaths/minute. Option A is too high for an infant and would indicate severe tachypnea. Option C falls within the normal range for an infant's respiratory rate. Option D is too low for an infant and would be considered bradypnea rather than tachypnea. Educationally, understanding age-specific vital sign ranges helps nurses and healthcare providers assess pediatric patients effectively. It allows for early recognition of respiratory distress or other health issues. By knowing the normal ranges, healthcare professionals can intervene promptly and provide appropriate care to infants in need.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In iron deficiency anemia, the erythrocytic indices are typically characterized by microcytic (decreased MCV), hypochromic (decreased MCH), and hypochromic (decreased MCHC) red blood cells. This is due to the insufficient hemoglobin synthesis caused by the lack of iron. Option B is correct as it reflects these characteristic changes associated with iron deficiency anemia. Option A is incorrect because in iron deficiency anemia, MCV is decreased due to the smaller size of red blood cells, and MCH and MCHC are both decreased due to the reduced hemoglobin content in each cell. Option C is incorrect because in iron deficiency anemia, MCV is decreased, MCH is decreased, and MCHC is decreased. MCH would not be increased in this case. Option D is incorrect as MCV is decreased, MCH is decreased, and MCHC is decreased in iron deficiency anemia, so stating that MCHC is normal is inaccurate. Understanding the characteristic erythrocytic indices in iron deficiency anemia is crucial for nurses caring for pediatric patients as it helps in identifying and managing this common condition in children. By knowing these indices, nurses can provide appropriate interventions such as iron supplementation and dietary modifications to improve the child's health outcomes.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) Ethambutol. Ethambutol is known to cause optic neuritis, which is inflammation of the optic nerve leading to visual disturbances. This adverse effect is unique to ethambutol among the options provided. A) Isoniazid is a commonly used antituberculosis agent but is not associated with causing optic neuritis. B) Rifampin is another widely used antituberculosis drug but does not typically lead to optic neuritis. C) Pyrazinamide is not known to cause optic neuritis. In a pediatric nursing context, understanding the potential side effects of medications used in the treatment of tuberculosis is crucial for providing safe and effective care to young patients. Recognizing the adverse effects of ethambutol, such as optic neuritis, allows nurses to monitor for symptoms, intervene promptly if needed, and educate patients and families on what to watch for during treatment.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the etiology of encephalitis is crucial for providing appropriate care. The correct answer is B) Enteroviruses. Enteroviruses are the most common viral cause of encephalitis in children due to their neurotropic nature, leading to central nervous system involvement. These viruses can cause a range of neurological symptoms in children, making them a significant concern in pediatric healthcare. Option A) Herpes simplex is a common cause of viral encephalitis in adults but is less prevalent in pediatric cases. Option C) Varicella Zoster typically presents as chickenpox or shingles and is not a common cause of encephalitis. Option D) Mumps can cause complications like meningitis but is not a primary cause of encephalitis in children. Educationally, this question reinforces the importance of recognizing the specific viral causes of encephalitis in pediatric patients. Understanding the common pathogens involved allows nurses to promptly identify symptoms, provide appropriate treatment, and prevent potential complications in pediatric patients with suspected encephalitis. This knowledge empowers nurses to deliver effective and timely care, ultimately improving patient outcomes in pediatric neurology cases.