Penicillin G has been prescribed for a patient. Which nursing intervention(s) should the nurse perform for this patient? (Select all that apply.)

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Pharmacology Final ATI Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

Penicillin G has been prescribed for a patient. Which nursing intervention(s) should the nurse perform for this patient? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Penicillin G is a beta-lactam antibiotic that can cause severe allergic reactions, including anaphylaxis. Having epinephrine on hand is crucial for managing such emergencies. Collecting a culture and sensitivity before the first dose ensures the infection is caused by a penicillin-susceptible organism. Mouth ulcers are not a common side effect of penicillin, but monitoring for superinfections like oral thrush is important. Limiting fluid intake to 1000 mL/day is incorrect, as adequate hydration helps maintain renal function and prevents crystalluria. No particular interventions are required is incorrect, as penicillin requires careful monitoring for efficacy and adverse effects.

Question 2 of 5

The patient tells the nurse, 'I thought I was just depressed, but my doctor says I have bipolar disorder. What is that?' What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Bipolar disorder features mood cycles-depression and mania (hyperactivity)-per DSM-5, distinct from unipolar depression. It's not just cyclic depression, nor ADHD-linked. Seasonal shifts are separate (SAD). Mania-depression cycles define it, clarifying diagnosis.

Question 3 of 5

The ability of epinephrine to cause hyperglycemia is due to;

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The ability of epinephrine to cause hyperglycemia is primarily due to its effect on alpha adrenoreceptors in the pancreatic islets of Langerhans. Epinephrine, acting through these alpha adrenoreceptors, inhibits the release of insulin from beta cells in response to elevated blood glucose levels. This results in decreased uptake of glucose by cells, leading to increased blood glucose levels, ultimately causing hyperglycemia. Other effects of epinephrine, such as vasoconstriction and increased heart rate, also contribute to the overall stress response, but the inhibition of insulin release through alpha adrenoreceptors is the main mechanism responsible for its hyperglycemic effects.

Question 4 of 5

When the nurse is administering topical nitroglycerin ointment, which technique is correct?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct technique when administering topical nitroglycerin ointment is to remove the old ointment before applying the new ointment. This is to prevent any potential overdosing of the medication, as nitroglycerin can be rapidly absorbed through the skin. It is important to ensure that the previous application is fully removed before applying a new dose to prevent any accumulation of the medication.

Question 5 of 5

A 5-year-old boy presents to the emergency room with abdominal pain, nausea, and three episodes of bloody emesis. His mother is concerned because she saw him playing near the open medicine cabinet and her prenatal vitamins were opened. What is the most appropriate treatment for the child's overdose?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Prenatal vitamins likely caused iron overdose (bloody emesis). Deferoxamine chelates iron, preventing toxicity. Aminocaproic acid treats bleeding. Dimercaprol and Penicillamine target other metals. Succimer (E) is for lead. Deferoxamine is urgent for this child.

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