Pedophilic disorder is the most common paraphilic disorder where adults who have a primary or exclusive sexual preference for prepubescent children. A subset of this disorder is termed hebephilia and is defined as attraction to:

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Mental Health Nursing ATI Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

Pedophilic disorder is the most common paraphilic disorder where adults who have a primary or exclusive sexual preference for prepubescent children. A subset of this disorder is termed hebephilia and is defined as attraction to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pubescent individuals. Hebephilia is a paraphilic disorder characterized by a primary or exclusive sexual interest in individuals who are in the early stages of puberty, typically around the ages of 11 to 14. This is different from pedophilic disorder, which involves a sexual preference for prepubescent children. Choice A (Infants) is incorrect as infants are prepubescent. Choice C (Teens between the ages of 15 and 19) is incorrect as these individuals are typically considered adolescents rather than pubescent. Choice D (Males only) is incorrect as hebephilia can occur in individuals of any gender.

Question 2 of 5

A patient is fearful of riding on elevators. The therapist first rides an escalator with the patient. The therapist and patient then stand in an elevator with the door open for 5 minutes and later with the elevator door closed for 5 minutes. Which technique has the therapist used?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Systematic desensitization. This technique involves exposing the patient gradually to the feared stimulus (elevator) in a controlled manner to reduce fear response. By starting with riding an escalator and then gradually progressing to standing in an elevator with the door open and closed, the therapist is helping the patient build up tolerance and reduce fear through systematic exposure. A: Classic psychoanalytic therapy focuses on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, not directly addressing phobias through systematic exposure. C: Rational emotive therapy involves challenging irrational beliefs and is not focused on exposure to feared stimuli. D: Biofeedback involves monitoring and controlling physiological responses, not directly addressing phobias through exposure.

Question 3 of 5

What personality disorder is most likely to be associated with illegal activity?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: antisocial personality disorder is most likely to be associated with illegal activity. Individuals with this disorder often exhibit a disregard for the rights of others, impulsivity, and a lack of remorse, making them prone to engaging in criminal behavior. Borderline personality disorder (B) is characterized by unstable relationships and emotions, but not necessarily criminal behavior. Dependent personality disorder (C) involves an excessive need to be taken care of, and schizoid personality disorder (D) is characterized by social detachment, both of which are not typically associated with illegal activity.

Question 4 of 5

Which clinical scenario predicts the highest risk for directing violent behavior toward others?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because paranoid delusions of being followed by alien monsters indicate severe psychosis and a distorted perception of reality, leading to potential violent behavior. Delusions involving external threats are associated with a higher risk of aggression. A: Major depressive disorder with delusions of worthlessness may lead to self-harm but not necessarily violence towards others. B: Obsessive-compulsive disorder with rituals is more about controlling anxiety and unlikely to result in violent behavior. D: Completed alcohol withdrawal and starting a rehabilitation program suggest the individual is seeking help and support, which reduces the risk of violence towards others.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B (Oliguria) Rationale: 1. Oliguria (decreased urine output) is a classic sign of decreased cardiac output due to poor perfusion to the kidneys. 2. Decreased cardiac output results in reduced blood flow to the kidneys, leading to decreased urine production. 3. Shivering is a common postoperative response, not directly related to cardiac output. 4. Bradypnea (slow breathing) and constricted pupils are not typical signs of decreased cardiac output.

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