ATI RN
Public Health Theories of Behavior Change Questions
Question 1 of 5
Patrick is in the oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis and is experiencing fluid and electrolyte imbalances. The client is somewhat confused and complains of nausea and muscle weakness. As part of the prescribed therapy to correct this electrolyte imbalance, the nurse would expect to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer Kayexalate. In the oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis, there is a build-up of potassium in the body, leading to electrolyte imbalances. Kayexalate is a medication that helps to remove excess potassium from the body. By administering Kayexalate, the nurse can help correct the electrolyte imbalance and prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choice B is incorrect because restricting foods high in protein would not directly address the potassium imbalance. Choice C is incorrect because increasing oral intake of cheese and milk can further exacerbate the potassium imbalance due to their high potassium content. Choice D is incorrect because administering large amounts of normal saline would not effectively correct the potassium imbalance seen in acute tubular necrosis.
Question 2 of 5
Anthony suffers burns on the legs, which nursing intervention helps prevent contractures?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Applying knee splints. This intervention helps prevent contractures by maintaining the proper alignment of the joints and preventing the shortening of muscles and connective tissues. Elevating the foot of the bed may help with swelling but does not directly prevent contractures. Hyperextending the client's palms and performing shoulder range-of-motion exercises are not relevant to preventing contractures in burned legs.
Question 3 of 5
A male client arriving in the emergency department is receiving cardiopulmonary resuscitation from paramedics who are giving ventilations through an endotracheal (ET) tube that they placed in the client's home. During a pause in compressions, the cardiac monitor shows narrow QRS complexes and a heart rate of beats/minute with a palpable pulse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Check endotracheal tube placement. The first step should be to ensure the proper placement of the endotracheal tube to confirm adequate ventilation and oxygenation. This is crucial in maintaining the client's airway and preventing complications. Checking the ET tube placement takes priority over other actions as ineffective ventilation can lead to further deterioration. A: Starting an L.V. line and administering amiodarone is not the priority in this scenario as the client has a palpable pulse and narrow QRS complexes, indicating a perfusing rhythm. C: Obtaining an arterial blood gas sample is important but not the immediate priority compared to verifying the ET tube placement. D: Administering atropine is not indicated in this case because the client has a perfusing rhythm. In summary, checking the endotracheal tube placement is the priority to ensure proper ventilation and oxygenation, while the other options are not immediately necessary in this situation.
Question 4 of 5
When prioritizing care, which of the following clients should the nurse Olivia assess first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Guillain-Barre syndrome is a rapidly progressive neurological disorder that can lead to life-threatening complications like respiratory failure. Assessing this client first is crucial to monitor for any signs of respiratory distress or deterioration. The other options are not immediate priorities as they are either stable post-surgery (A), post-myocardial infarction for 3 days (C), or with diverticulitis (D) which does not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to Guillain-Barre syndrome.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following laboratory test results would suggest to the nurse Len that a client has a corticotropin-secreting pituitary adenoma?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Corticotropin-secreting pituitary adenoma causes excess ACTH production. 2. High ACTH stimulates adrenal glands to produce high cortisol levels. 3. Therefore, high corticotropin (ACTH) and high cortisol levels indicate corticotropin-secreting pituitary adenoma. Summary of Other Choices: A: High corticotropin and low cortisol levels suggest primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease). B: Low corticotropin and high cortisol levels indicate adrenal tumor or exogenous steroid use. D: Low corticotropin and low cortisol levels indicate secondary adrenal insufficiency.