ATI RN
Foundations in Microbiology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Patients with similar complaints applied to the doctor: weakness, pain in the intestines, disorder of GIT. Examination of the feces revealed that one patient with four nucleus cysts should be hospitalized immediately. For what protozoa are such cysts typical?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dysenteric amoeba. 1. Dysenteric amoeba causes amoebiasis, which presents with symptoms like weakness, intestinal pain, and gastrointestinal disorders. 2. The presence of four-nucleus cysts in the feces indicates an infection with Entamoeba histolytica, the causative agent of amoebiasis. 3. Multiple-nucleus cysts are characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica, distinguishing it from other protozoa. 4. Lamblia (choice A), Balantidium (choice C), and Trichomonas (choice D) are not associated with four-nucleus cysts or the mentioned symptoms, making them incorrect choices.
Question 2 of 5
A journalist's body temperature has sharply increased in the morning three weeks after his mission in India, it was accompanied with shivering and bad headache. A few hours later the temperature decreased. The attacks began to repeat in a day. He was diagnosed with tropical malaria. What stage of development of Plasmodium is infective for anopheles-female?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sporozoites. Sporozoites are the infective stage of Plasmodium for the female Anopheles mosquito. Here's the rationale: After being transmitted to a human host through a mosquito bite, the sporozoites travel to the liver where they mature and reproduce asexually as merozoites (not the infective stage for mosquitoes). The merozoites then infect red blood cells, leading to symptoms like fever, headache, and shivering. During the blood stage, some merozoites develop into male and female gametocytes, which are not infective to mosquitoes. When a mosquito bites an infected person, it ingests gametocytes, which then develop into male and female gametes and fuse to form ookinetes. Ookinetes develop into oocysts in the mosquito's gut, releasing sporozoites that migrate to the salivary glands, ready to infect a new human host when the mosquito bites
Question 3 of 5
A patient who came to the doctor because of his infertility was administered to make tests for toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhoea. Which reaction should be performed to reveal latent toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhoea in this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: IFA - Immunofluorescence assay. Toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhea can be detected using serological tests like IFA. IFA detects specific antibodies in the patient's serum by using fluorescently labeled antibodies. This method is highly sensitive and specific for detecting both acute and latent infections. Explanation of Incorrect Choices: A: RIHA - Reverse indirect hemagglutination assay - This test is not commonly used for detecting toxoplasmosis or chronic gonorrhea. B: RDHA - Reverse direct hemagglutination assay - This test is not typically used for these specific infections. D: Immunoblot analysis - While Immunoblot analysis is a useful confirmatory test for certain infections, it is not the primary method for detecting toxoplasmosis or chronic gonorrhea.
Question 4 of 5
A 60-year-old patient was hospitalized to the surgical department because of infection caused by blue pus bacillus (Pseudomonas aeruginosa) which is sensative to penicillin antibiotics. Indicate which of the given penicillins has marked activity to the Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Carbenicillin disodium. Carbenicillin is a semisynthetic penicillin that has marked activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This is due to its extended spectrum of activity and increased stability against beta-lactamases produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Carbenicillin is commonly used to treat infections caused by this bacterium. Choice B: Benzylpenicillin (Penicillin G) has limited activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Choice C: Methicillin is not effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Choice D: Oxacillin also has limited activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. In summary, Carbenicillin is the correct choice due to its marked activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa compared to the other penicillins listed.
Question 5 of 5
A 32 year old patient complains about heartburn and dull pain in the epigastrium that appear 2-3 hours after meal. Exacerbations happen in spring and in autumn. The patient has food intolerance of eggs and fish. Objectively: stomach palpation reveals painfulness in the gastroduodenal area. Electrophasoduodenoscopy revealed a 5 mm ulcer on the anterior wall of duodenum. Urease test is positive. What is the most probable leading mechanism of disease development?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Helicobacterial infection. This is the most probable leading mechanism of disease development in this case because the patient's symptoms, such as heartburn, epigastric pain, food intolerance, and presence of a duodenal ulcer with a positive urease test, are classic signs of Helicobacter pylori infection. This bacterium colonizes the stomach lining, leading to inflammation and ulcer formation. The exacerbations in spring and autumn could be due to seasonal variations in immune response. Choice B: Dietary allergy is incorrect because the symptoms and findings in the patient are more indicative of an infectious etiology rather than an allergic reaction to specific foods. Choice C: Autoantibody production is unlikely as there are no indications of an autoimmune process in this case. Choice D: Reduced prostaglandin synthesis is not the leading mechanism as the symptoms and findings are more consistent with an infectious cause rather than a deficiency in prostaglandin synthesis.