Patients who are being treated with epoetin alfa need to be monitored for the development of:

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Hematological drugs Questions

Question 1 of 5

Patients who are being treated with epoetin alfa need to be monitored for the development of:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of hematological drugs, such as epoetin alfa, it is crucial for healthcare providers to monitor patients for potential adverse effects to ensure optimal treatment outcomes. The correct answer, option C) Hypertension, is the most pertinent side effect associated with epoetin alfa therapy. Epoetin alfa is a medication used to stimulate red blood cell production in conditions like anemia, often seen in patients with chronic kidney disease or undergoing chemotherapy. Patients on epoetin alfa therapy are at an increased risk of developing hypertension due to the medication's effect on increasing red blood cell production. The rise in red blood cells can lead to increased blood viscosity and, subsequently, hypertension. Monitoring blood pressure regularly during treatment is essential to detect and manage hypertension promptly. Options A) Thrombocytopenia and B) Neutropenia are less likely to be associated with epoetin alfa therapy. Thrombocytopenia refers to low platelet count, which is not a common side effect of epoetin alfa. Neutropenia, a low white blood cell count, is also not a typical concern with this medication. Option D) Gout is not directly linked to epoetin alfa therapy either. In an educational context, understanding the side effects and monitoring requirements of hematological drugs like epoetin alfa is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide safe and effective care to their patients. By knowing the expected side effects and appropriate monitoring protocols, healthcare providers can intervene early, prevent complications, and ensure the best possible treatment outcomes for patients receiving these medications.

Question 2 of 5

The first laboratory value indication that vitamin B12 therapy is adequately treating pernicious anemia is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the treatment of pernicious anemia with vitamin B12 therapy, the first laboratory value that indicates adequate treatment is when the reticulocyte count begins to rise. Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells, and an increase in their count signifies the bone marrow's response to the vitamin B12 therapy, indicating that new red blood cells are being produced. This is a critical indicator of the effectiveness of the treatment in replenishing the deficient red blood cells in pernicious anemia. Option A, hematocrit levels rising, and Option B, hemoglobin levels returning to normal, are not the first indicators of successful treatment in pernicious anemia with vitamin B12 therapy. While these values may improve later in the treatment process as red blood cell production increases, the initial response is seen at the reticulocyte level. Option D, vitamin B12 levels returning to normal, is also not the primary indicator of successful treatment for pernicious anemia. The focus of treatment is to address the deficiency in red blood cells caused by the inability to absorb vitamin B12, rather than solely normalizing the vitamin B12 levels in the blood. Understanding the specific laboratory values and their significance in monitoring the response to treatment is crucial for healthcare providers managing patients with hematological disorders. Recognizing the importance of the reticulocyte count as an early indicator of treatment effectiveness in pernicious anemia can guide clinicians in assessing and adjusting therapy to optimize patient outcomes.

Question 3 of 5

The recommended long-term antithrombotic therapy for a patient with a DVT in their leg is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the context of treating a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the leg, the recommended long-term antithrombotic therapy is a direct factor Xa inhibitor, which is option D. Direct factor Xa inhibitors like rivaroxaban, apixaban, or edoxaban have become preferred agents due to their efficacy, safety, and convenience compared to older agents like warfarin. These medications directly inhibit factor Xa in the coagulation cascade, preventing the formation of thrombin and subsequent clot propagation. Option A, low-molecular-weight heparin, is commonly used initially in the acute treatment of DVT but is not recommended for long-term therapy due to the need for subcutaneous injections and monitoring. Option B, warfarin tapered monthly, is no longer the first-line option for long-term anticoagulation due to its narrow therapeutic window, interactions with food and other medications, and the need for frequent monitoring. Option C, aspirin 325 mg daily, is not recommended as the sole therapy for DVT as it is an antiplatelet agent rather than a direct anticoagulant, and its efficacy in preventing DVT extension or recurrence is limited. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind selecting the appropriate antithrombotic therapy for DVT is crucial for healthcare professionals managing patients with thrombotic disorders. It is essential to stay updated on current guidelines and evidence-based practices to provide optimal care and prevent complications in patients with DVT.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following is false regarding heparin?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is B) Heparin is usually stored in the mast cells. Heparin is not stored in mast cells; rather, it is synthesized and stored in mast cells in the form of granules. Heparin is an anticoagulant that works by binding to plasma antithrombin III, enhancing its ability to inhibit activated coagulation factors like thrombin. This action prevents blood clot formation. Therefore, option C is correct as it accurately describes the mechanism of action of heparin. Option A is incorrect because subcutaneous injection of heparin is common practice in clinical settings, especially for prophylaxis and treatment of thrombotic conditions. While hematomas can occur with any injection, proper administration techniques can minimize this risk. Option D is incorrect as protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin overdose. Protamine sulfate binds to heparin, neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. This is an essential aspect of managing patients who have received an excessive dose of heparin. Educationally, understanding the pharmacology of heparin is crucial for healthcare professionals working with patients requiring anticoagulation therapy. It is essential to know the correct administration routes, mechanisms of action, potential side effects, and antidotes to ensure safe and effective patient care. This knowledge helps in preventing adverse events and managing complications associated with heparin therapy.

Question 5 of 5

A patient is presented with weakness of legs, arms, trunk, tingling and numbness that progressively worsens. Peripheral blood smear shows macrocytic anemia. Which of the following is not the factor causing this condition?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms and macrocytic anemia suggest vitamin B12 deficiency, commonly caused by chronic atrophic gastritis (reduced intrinsic factor), ileal resection (impaired absorption), tapeworm (competes for B12), and nitrous oxide (inactivates B12). Alcoholism typically causes folate deficiency, not directly B12 deficiency.

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