ATI RN
foundations in microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Patients planned for treatment with monoclonal antibodies are tested for:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All are correct. Patients planned for treatment with monoclonal antibodies should be tested for HBV, HCV, and M. tuberculosis due to the risk of reactivation of these infections during treatment. HBV and HCV reactivation can lead to severe liver damage, while M. tuberculosis reactivation can cause serious respiratory complications. Testing for all three infections helps in identifying and managing any pre-existing infections to ensure patient safety during monoclonal antibody treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these infections presents specific risks that need to be assessed before initiating monoclonal antibody therapy.
Question 2 of 9
What type of bacteria is responsible for the formation of acid in the stomach?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is responsible for stomach acid formation by producing an enzyme called urease, which converts urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide, leading to an increase in stomach pH. Staphylococcus aureus (A) does not cause stomach acid formation. Bacillus cereus (C) and Clostridium botulinum (D) are not involved in stomach acid processes.
Question 3 of 9
Allergy to penicillin is an example of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice A being correct: 1. Penicillin allergy involves IgE antibodies binding to penicillin. 2. This triggers mast cell degranulation, releasing histamine. 3. Histamine causes allergic symptoms like rash, swelling. 4. This immune response characterizes Type I hypersensitivity reactions. Summary of other choices: B: Type II reactions involve antibody-mediated cell destruction, not seen in penicillin allergy. C: Type III reactions involve immune complex deposition, not typical in penicillin allergy. D: Type IV reactions are delayed hypersensitivity reactions, not immediate like penicillin allergy.
Question 4 of 9
For family Rhabdoviridae is true that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: They are enveloped viruses. Rhabdoviridae family consists of enveloped viruses, which means they have a lipid envelope surrounding their protein coat. This envelope helps the virus in infecting host cells and evading the immune system. The other choices are incorrect because B: They cause plague is not true as Rhabdoviridae family typically causes diseases like rabies in mammals. C: They have spherical shape is incorrect as rhabdoviruses have a bullet-shaped structure. D: They infect only humans is also incorrect as Rhabdoviridae viruses can infect a wide range of hosts beyond just humans.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with a productive cough and fever had a sputum smear revealing Gram-positive cocci in clusters. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci bacterium that forms clusters and commonly causes pneumonia with a productive cough and fever. It is frequently found in sputum smears in such cases. Streptococcus pneumoniae (B) is another common cause of pneumonia but typically appears in pairs or chains, not clusters. Neisseria meningitidis (C) is a Gram-negative diplococcus that causes meningitis, not pneumonia. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is a Gram-negative bacterium that can cause pneumonia but appears as Gram-negative rods, not Gram-positive cocci in clusters.
Question 6 of 9
All are correct except:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Q-fever is not transmitted only after ticks bite; it can also be transmitted through inhalation of contaminated aerosols. Rickettsia mooseri and Rickettsia provazekii can cause spotted fevers, making choice A correct. Mediterranean fever is associated with a recurrent pattern of fever, not maculopapular rash, making choice C incorrect. "None of the above" is not correct in this case as choice B is incorrect.
Question 7 of 9
Which bacteria is commonly associated with foodborne illnesses?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Campylobacter jejuni. This bacteria is commonly associated with foodborne illnesses due to its presence in undercooked poultry and unpasteurized milk. Campylobacteriosis is a leading cause of bacterial gastroenteritis. Streptococcus pneumoniae (A) causes pneumonia, not foodborne illnesses. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (C) causes tuberculosis, not foodborne illnesses. Haemophilus influenzae (D) can cause respiratory infections but is not commonly associated with foodborne illnesses.
Question 8 of 9
A 42-year-old woman has foamy purulent vaginal discharges. Microscopy revealed flagellated protozoa with an undulating membrane and pear-shaped structure. What organism was found?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a sexually transmitted protozoan parasite that causes trichomoniasis, characterized by foamy purulent vaginal discharges. Microscopy of vaginal discharge showing flagellated protozoa with an undulating membrane and pear-shaped structure is indicative of Trichomonas vaginalis. Trypanosoma gambiense causes African sleeping sickness and is transmitted by tsetse flies. Leishmania donovani causes visceral leishmaniasis transmitted by sandflies. Lamblia intestinalis causes giardiasis and is characterized by diarrhea and flatulence.
Question 9 of 9
The bacteria that produces a thick pseudomembrane in the throat is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Corynebacterium diphtheriae is the correct answer as it is the bacteria responsible for causing diphtheria, characterized by a thick pseudomembrane in the throat. 2. Streptococcus pyogenes causes strep throat but does not produce a pseudomembrane. 3. Neisseria meningitidis causes meningitis and septicemia, not a throat pseudomembrane. 4. Bacillus cereus causes food poisoning, not throat-related symptoms.