Patients are at risk for overwhelming postsplenectomy infection (OPSI) following splenectomy. Which of the ff. symptoms alerts the nurse to this possibility?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fever. Following splenectomy, patients are at risk for OPSI due to impaired immune response. Fever is a key symptom of infection and should alert the nurse to this possibility. Bruising around the operative site (A) is expected post-surgery. Pain (B) is common after surgery and may not specifically indicate OPSI. Irritability (C) is a vague symptom and not specific to OPSI. In summary, fever is the most concerning symptom as it can indicate an underlying infection in a postsplenectomy patient.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Health behavior. Evaluating the patient's demonstration of self-injection assesses their ability to perform a specific health-related action. This choice focuses on the patient's actions and behaviors related to their health, aligning with the scenario provided. Choice A: Health status is incorrect because it refers to the patient's current physical condition, not their ability to perform a specific health action. Choice C: Psychological self-control is incorrect as it pertains to the patient's ability to regulate their emotions and impulses, not their ability to self-administer injections. Choice D: Health service utilization is incorrect as it relates to the frequency and pattern of healthcare services used by the patient, not their ability to perform a specific health behavior.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is the surgical removal of the pituitary gland's adenohypophysis. 2. The procedure is used to treat pituitary tumors, which can be benign or malignant, but commonly referred to as pituitary adenomas. 3. Pituitary adenomas may secrete hormones excessively, leading to various endocrine disorders. 4. Hormone replacement therapy is required post-surgery to manage hormonal deficiencies. 5. Therefore, the correct answer is C (Pituitary carcinoma). Summary: A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not involve the pituitary gland, which is the primary target of a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Vitamin D. Vitamin D is essential for the absorption of calcium in the intestines. Without sufficient vitamin D, the body cannot effectively absorb calcium, leading to potential issues with calcium absorption. Vitamin A (choice A) is not directly involved in calcium absorption. Vitamin B (choice B) and Vitamin C (choice C) also do not play a significant role in calcium absorption. Therefore, the lack of Vitamin D is the most likely cause for problems with calcium absorption.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 30 minutes before breakfast. Glyburide is a sulfonylurea medication that stimulates insulin release from the pancreas, enhancing glucose uptake. Taking it before breakfast ensures peak insulin levels coincide with the postprandial glucose spike, aiding in glucose control throughout the day. Option B is incorrect as taking it after dinner may lead to hypoglycemia during sleep. Option C is incorrect as midmorning is not an optimal time for a sulfonylurea dose. Option D is incorrect as taking it at bedtime may also increase the risk of hypoglycemia overnight.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Maintain strict records of intake and output. This is the best way to assess fluid balance in a burn patient because it provides quantitative data on fluid intake and output, helping to monitor for fluid imbalance. Monitoring skin turgor (B) is unreliable in burn patients due to skin damage. Weighing the client daily (C) may not accurately reflect fluid balance changes. Checking for edema (D) is not specific to assessing fluid balance in burn patients. Maintaining intake and output records allows for precise monitoring and early detection of fluid shifts, making it the most appropriate choice.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use the smallest needle possible for injections. This is important for a client with thrombocytopenia because they have a low platelet count, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Using a small needle minimizes the risk of causing bleeding or bruising during injections. Limiting family visits (choice A) is not directly related to protecting the client from bleeding. Encouraging wheelchair use (choice B) is not specifically relevant to protecting the client with thrombocytopenia. Maintaining accurate fluid intake and output records (choice D) is important but not directly related to preventing bleeding in a client with thrombocytopenia.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fever. Following splenectomy, patients are at risk for OPSI due to impaired immune response. Fever is a key symptom of infection and should alert the nurse to this possibility. Bruising around the operative site (A) is expected post-surgery. Pain (B) is common after surgery and may not specifically indicate OPSI. Irritability (C) is a vague symptom and not specific to OPSI. In summary, fever is the most concerning symptom as it can indicate an underlying infection in a postsplenectomy patient.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Painful and frequent urination. Cloudy penile discharge is a common symptom of urethritis, which is inflammation of the urethra. Painful and frequent urination are classic symptoms of urethritis due to irritation and inflammation of the urinary tract. Throat or rectal infection (choice A) are not typically associated with urethritis. Chancres or vesicles on the genitals (choice B) are more indicative of sexually transmitted infections like syphilis or herpes. Oliguria and flank pain (choice D) are more suggestive of kidney or urinary tract issues rather than urethritis.