ATI RN
microbiology basic and clinical principles test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Patients after splenectomy are of high risk of infections caused by:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: After a splenectomy, patients are at high risk of infections caused by encapsulated bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Listeria monocytogenes, and Salmonella. The spleen plays a crucial role in the immune response against encapsulated bacteria, and its absence increases susceptibility to these specific pathogens. Therefore, all choices are correct as patients are at risk of infections from all three types of bacteria mentioned.
Question 2 of 9
Growth of bacteria is a result of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The growth of bacteria is a result of water adsorption because water is essential for various metabolic processes within the bacterial cells, such as nutrient uptake, energy production, and waste removal. Water serves as a medium for chemical reactions to occur and provides structural support to the bacteria. Without sufficient water, bacteria cannot thrive and reproduce. A: Air consumption is incorrect because while bacteria may require oxygen for respiration, it is not the primary factor for their growth. C: Enzyme production is incorrect because enzymes are important for various cellular functions but do not directly influence bacterial growth. D: Radio isotopes are incorrect as they are not essential for bacterial growth and can even be harmful to bacterial cells.
Question 3 of 9
The cell envelope of Gram-negative bacteria is composed of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because Gram-negative bacteria have a unique cell envelope structure consisting of a cytoplasmic membrane, a peptidoglycan layer, and an outer membrane. The cytoplasmic membrane is the innermost layer that separates the cytoplasm from the external environment. The peptidoglycan layer provides structural support to the cell. The outer membrane acts as an additional protective barrier and contains lipopolysaccharides. Choice B is incorrect because Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane in addition to the cytoplasmic membrane and peptidoglycan layer. Choice C is incorrect because Gram-negative bacteria have more than just a peptidoglycan layer in their cell envelope. Choice D is incorrect as the cell envelope of Gram-negative bacteria does have specific components.
Question 4 of 9
A 28-year-old patient was hospitalized with preliminary diagnosis "influenza". Roseolous-petechial rash appeared on the 5th day of disease on the trunk. The temperature is 41oC. Hyperemia of face, reddening of scleras, tremor of tongue, tachycardia, splenomegaly are present. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is Epidemic typhus (Choice A) based on the symptoms described. The presence of roseolous-petechial rash, high fever (41oC), hyperemia of face, reddening of scleras, tremor of the tongue, tachycardia, and splenomegaly are classic signs of epidemic typhus. The rash typically appears around the 5th day of the disease. Summary: - B: Measles typically presents with a maculopapular rash starting on the face and spreading downward. It doesn't usually present with tremor of the tongue or splenomegaly. - C: Alcohol delirium is characterized by confusion, disorientation, and hallucinations due to alcohol consumption. It doesn't match the symptoms described. - D: Leptospirosis presents with fever, muscle pain, and conjunctival suffusion. It doesn't typically present with the specific rash and trem
Question 5 of 9
Immunity after single vaccination against tetanus - application of tetanus toxoid is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Immunity after a single tetanus vaccination is of limited duration, usually around 10 years. Booster vaccinations are needed to maintain protection due to waning immunity over time. Choice A is incorrect as immunity is not usually lifelong. Choice C is incorrect as tetanus toxoid is a sterile vaccine and does not cause infection. Choice D is also incorrect as there is a correct answer, which is B.
Question 6 of 9
What reaction is catalyzed by a beta-lactamase enzyme
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: the hydrolysis of the four-membered ring present in penicillin. Beta-lactamase enzyme catalyzes the hydrolysis of the four-membered beta-lactam ring present in penicillin, rendering the antibiotic ineffective against bacterial cell walls. This enzyme breaks the bond in the beta-lactam ring, thus inactivating the antibiotic. Incorrect choices: A: the final cross-linking reaction to form the bacterial cell wall - This is incorrect as beta-lactamase does not participate in the formation of bacterial cell walls. B: the biosynthesis of the penicillin structure from the amino acid valine and cysteine - This is incorrect as beta-lactamase is not involved in the biosynthesis of penicillin. D: the hydrolysis of the acyl side chain from penicillin structures - This is incorrect as beta-lactamase specifically targets the beta-lactam ring, not the
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is responsible for causing cholera?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vibrio cholerae. Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholerae, a bacterium that infects the small intestine, leading to severe diarrhea and dehydration. This bacterium produces a toxin that causes the symptoms of cholera. A: Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery, not cholera. C: Salmonella enterica causes food poisoning, not cholera. D: Escherichia coli can cause food poisoning but not cholera.
Question 8 of 9
A wound culture grew Gram-negative rods that were oxidase-positive and lactose non-fermenters. What is the most likely microorganism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. P. aeruginosa is a Gram-negative rod that is oxidase-positive and lactose non-fermenting. The positive oxidase test indicates the presence of cytochrome c oxidase, a characteristic of P. aerugin. E. coli is lactose fermenting. Salmonella and Shigella are also Gram-negative rods, but they are lactose fermenters, unlike the lactose non-fermenting P. aeruginosa.
Question 9 of 9
A 30-year-old patient complains about having abdominal pain and diarrhea for five days; body temperature rise up to 37, 5oC along with chills. The day before a patient had been in a forest and drunk from an open water reservoir. Laboratory analyses enabled to make the following diagnosis: amebic dysentery. What is the drug of choice for its treatment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Rationale: 1. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for amebic dysentery due to its effectiveness against the causative agent, Entamoeba histolytica. 2. Metronidazole has good tissue penetration and is able to reach the site of infection in the gut. 3. It is a bactericidal drug that acts by disrupting the DNA structure of the parasite. 4. Metronidazole is well-absorbed orally and has minimal side effects. Summary of other choices: B: Furazolidonum - Not the drug of choice for amebic dysentery. It is primarily used for treating bacterial diarrhea. C: Levomycetin - Not effective against Entamoeba histolytica and not recommended for amebic dysentery. D: Phthalazol - Not commonly used for amebic dysentery treatment. Metronidazole is preferred due