Patient Ximena sought referral to an abort ion clinic from the nurse. She reasons out that her pregnancy a burden to her work and daily routines. What should be the BEST RESPONSE of the nurse?

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Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Patient Ximena sought referral to an abort ion clinic from the nurse. She reasons out that her pregnancy a burden to her work and daily routines. What should be the BEST RESPONSE of the nurse?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A because it addresses the patient's concerns about potential discrimination. This shows empathy and understanding towards the patient's emotional well-being. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the patient's reasons for seeking an abortion. Choice B imposes moral and legal judgments, which can be insensitive. Choice C is not relevant to the patient's stated reason. Choice D imposes religious beliefs, which may not align with the patient's own beliefs.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following clinical manifestations is most indicative of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: - ARDS is characterized by severe hypoxemia and respiratory distress. - Tachypnea is a hallmark sign of ARDS due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygenation. - Hypoxemia refractory to supplemental oxygen signifies the inability to improve oxygen levels despite intervention. - Choices A, B, and D do not align with typical manifestations of ARDS, as they do not directly reflect severe hypoxemia or respiratory distress.

Question 3 of 9

Nurse Florence was asked by her Headnurse why she requested permission to enroll in the Graduate Program for the second semester. Her reply should be, EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Nurse Florence was asked why she requested permission to enroll in the Graduate Program for the second semester, not about her interest in Pediatric Nursing. A: Having an impressive resume to be competitive aligns with career advancement. B: Connecting with people professionally can lead to networking opportunities. C: Investing for the future implies long-term career growth. Therefore, D is the least relevant response to the question asked.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following is a characteristic of qualitative research?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Inductive process. Qualitative research typically involves an inductive approach, where researchers gather data, analyze patterns, and develop theories or hypotheses based on the observed data. This allows for exploration and discovery of new insights. A) Deductive process is not a characteristic of qualitative research, as deductive reasoning involves starting with a hypothesis and testing it with data. B) Fixed research design is not common in qualitative research, which often uses flexible and adaptive designs to accommodate emergent findings. C) Control over the context is not a key characteristic of qualitative research, as it often involves studying real-world settings with natural contexts rather than controlled environments. In summary, the inductive process is a key characteristic of qualitative research as it allows for exploration and theory development based on observed data, distinguishing it from deductive approaches, fixed designs, and controlled contexts.

Question 5 of 9

What type of sampling wills Nurse Sandy adopts 11 when every third (3rd) patients with MI are selected after a random start?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Systematic sampling. Nurse Sandy is adopting systematic sampling by selecting every third patient with MI after a random start. This method ensures equal chance of selection for each patient and maintains randomness. In contrast, simple random sampling (A) entails each patient having an equal chance of being selected independently. Stratified sampling (B) divides patients into groups based on certain characteristics, which is not the case here. Cluster sampling (D) involves grouping patients and selecting entire groups, which is different from the individual selection in this scenario.

Question 6 of 9

At which stage of Lewin ' s planned change indicates the nurse identifying, planning, and implementing appropriate strategies ensuring that driving forces exceed restraining forces?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: unfreezing. Unfreezing is the initial stage in Lewin's planned change model where individuals become open to change by recognizing the need for it. During this stage, the nurse identifies the need for change, plans strategies to implement it, and works on overcoming resistance by ensuring that the driving forces (reasons for change) outweigh the restraining forces (barriers to change). Refreezing (A) is the final stage where the changes are reinforced and integrated into the organization. Movement (B) is the stage where actual change occurs, and in activism (D) is not a recognized stage in Lewin's model.

Question 7 of 9

A Patients to take regularly Lithium after discharged. The MOST important information to impart to the patient and his family is that the patient should

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, to have a limited intake of sodium. Lithium can lead to increased sodium levels in the body, potentially causing toxicity. By limiting sodium intake, the patient can maintain a balance and prevent adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect as tyramine content is not directly related to lithium intake. Choice B is incorrect as fluid intake does not have a significant impact on lithium levels. Choice D is incorrect because an adequate intake of sodium can lead to worsening lithium toxicity.

Question 8 of 9

Nurse Pedrito is teaching a client with Parkinson's disease on ways to prevent curvatures of the spine associated with the disease. To prevent spinal flexion, the nurse should tell the client to _________.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Periodically lie in prone position without a neck pillow. This position helps to prevent spinal flexion by promoting extension of the spine and stretching of the hip flexors. Prone positioning also helps maintain alignment of the spine and prevents contractures. Resting in supine position (choice A) with the head elevated does not promote spinal extension. Sleeping only in dorsal recumbent position (choice B) may lead to spinal flexion. Sleeping on either side (choice D) does not specifically address spinal flexion prevention.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following conditions is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys, leading to hematuria, proteinuria, and hypertension?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute glomerulonephritis. Glomerulonephritis is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys, leading to symptoms like hematuria (blood in urine), proteinuria (excess protein in urine), and hypertension (high blood pressure). Acute tubular necrosis (A) involves damage to the renal tubules, not the glomeruli. Chronic kidney disease (C) refers to long-term kidney damage and may not always present with the classic symptoms mentioned. Nephrotic syndrome (D) involves excessive protein loss in urine but may not always involve inflammation of the glomeruli.

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