ATI RN
microbiology chapter 1 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Patient with diarrhoea was admitted to the infection unit. Gram-negative curved rod-like bacteria were founded on bacterioscopic examination of faecal masses. What is the most likely disease in this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cholera. Cholera is caused by Gram-negative curved rod-like bacteria called Vibrio cholerae, commonly found in contaminated water or food. The characteristic symptom of cholera is profuse watery diarrhea, which matches the patient's presentation. Typhoid fever (A) is caused by Salmonella typhi, which is not a curved rod-like bacteria. Diphtheria (C) is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, a Gram-positive bacterium, and does not typically cause diarrhea. Intestinal form of plague (D) is caused by Yersinia pestis, which is not a curved rod-like bacteria and does not typically present with diarrhea.
Question 2 of 9
Peritrichous bacteria:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because peritrichous bacteria have flagella distributed all over their surface, allowing them to move in various directions. Choice A is incorrect because bacteria with a single flagellum at one pole are called monotrichous. Choice C is incorrect as bacteria with a single flagellum at each pole are known as amphitrichous. Choice D is incorrect because peritrichous bacteria have multiple flagella all over their surface, not limited to one or both poles.
Question 3 of 9
Which bacteria are known for causing hospital-acquired infections?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Staphylococcus aureus, Escherichia coli, and Clostridium difficile are all known for causing hospital-acquired infections. Staphylococcus aureus can cause skin infections and pneumonia. Escherichia coli can lead to urinary tract infections. Clostridium difficile is associated with gastrointestinal infections. Each of these bacteria has been linked to healthcare-associated infections due to their ability to spread in healthcare settings. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these bacteria individually is known to cause hospital-acquired infections.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following growth media is most suitable for isolation of Candida:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Candida is a fungus commonly isolated from clinical specimens. 2. Sabouraud agar is the most suitable medium for Candida due to its low pH and high dextrose content. 3. Low pH inhibits bacterial growth, while dextrose promotes fungal growth. 4. Zeisler media, Chocolate agar, and Muller-Hinton agar are not specific for fungal isolation. Summary: - Zeisler media is used for anaerobic bacteria. - Chocolate agar is used for fastidious organisms like Haemophilus. - Muller-Hinton agar is for antibiotic susceptibility testing, not fungal isolation.
Question 5 of 9
During an examination of feces from a patient with dysentery symptoms, large ciliated protozoa with a kidney-shaped macronucleus were found. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Balantidium coli. Balantidium coli is a large ciliated protozoa with a kidney-shaped macronucleus, commonly found in the feces of individuals with dysentery symptoms. Its morphology matches the description given in the question, making it the most likely causative agent. Summary of other choices: B: Entamoeba histolytica - This is not the correct answer because Entamoeba histolytica is a small amoeba with no cilia and a different nucleus shape. C: Giardia lamblia - This is not the correct answer as Giardia lamblia is a flagellated protozoa with a pear-shaped nucleus, different from the description provided. D: Trichomonas hominis - This is not the correct answer as Trichomonas hominis is a flagellated protozoa with multiple flagella and an undulating membrane, which does not match the characteristics of the
Question 6 of 9
In a maternity hospital a newborn should receive vaccination against tuberculosis. What vaccine should be chosen?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: BCG vaccine. Step 1: BCG vaccine is specifically designed to protect against tuberculosis, making it the appropriate choice for newborns. Step 2: STI vaccine is for sexually transmitted infections, not tuberculosis. Step 3: EV vaccine is not a recognized vaccine. Step 4: DPT vaccine protects against diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus, not tuberculosis. In summary, BCG vaccine is the correct choice as it targets tuberculosis specifically, while the other options are designed for different purposes.
Question 7 of 9
All of the following are components of the gastrointestinal tract except the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: spleen. The spleen is not a component of the gastrointestinal tract; it is part of the lymphatic system. The pharynx, esophagus, and stomach are all part of the gastrointestinal tract responsible for digestion and absorption of food. The spleen's main functions include filtering blood, storing blood cells, and supporting the immune system, making it unrelated to the digestive process.
Question 8 of 9
Detection of galactomannan and free mannan is used for diagnosing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: aspergillosis and candidiasis. Detection of galactomannan and free mannan is commonly used in diagnosing these fungal infections. Galactomannan is a component of the cell wall of Aspergillus species, while free mannan is associated with Candida species. This detection method helps in identifying these specific fungal infections accurately. B: Syphilis is caused by a bacterium, Treponema pallidum, and is not diagnosed using galactomannan or free mannan detection. C: Leptospirosis is a bacterial infection caused by the Leptospira species and is not diagnosed using galactomannan or free mannan detection. D: HIV infection is a viral infection caused by the human immunodeficiency virus and is not diagnosed using galactomannan or free mannan detection.
Question 9 of 9
A relationship between organisms in which the waste product of one provides nutrients for another is called
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: commensalism. In commensalism, one organism benefits while the other is neither helped nor harmed. In this relationship, the waste product of one organism serves as a nutrient source for another without affecting the first organism. Mutualism (A) involves both organisms benefiting, competition (B) involves a struggle for resources, and synergism (C) involves cooperative interactions. Commensalism is the only choice where one organism benefits from the waste product of another without any impact on the producer.