ATI RN
microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Passage of antibodies from one person to another is called
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Passive immunity is the transfer of pre-formed antibodies from one individual to another, providing immediate protection. This process does not involve the recipient's immune response, hence it is called passive. Active immunity, on the other hand, involves the individual's immune system producing its own antibodies after exposure to an antigen. Innate immunity refers to the body's natural defense mechanisms present from birth, not involving antibodies. Therefore, the correct answer is A: passive immunity.
Question 2 of 9
Those organisms which in the process of evolution failed to develop protection from H O can exist 2 2 only in anaerobic conditions. Which of the following enzymes can break hydrogen peroxide down?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Peroxidase and catalase. Peroxidase and catalase are enzymes that break down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. Peroxidase helps in breaking down low levels of hydrogen peroxide, while catalase is crucial for breaking down high levels of hydrogen peroxide efficiently. This process is important for organisms to prevent damage from reactive oxygen species. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Oxygenase and hydroxylase are enzymes involved in different biochemical reactions and do not break down hydrogen peroxide. C: Cytochrome oxidase and cytochrome B5 are involved in electron transport chain reactions and not in breaking down hydrogen peroxide. D: Oxygenase and catalase are not correct as oxygenase is not involved in hydrogen peroxide breakdown, only catalase is.
Question 3 of 9
All of the following reactions are used for the serological identification of Yersinia pestis, EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Agglutination test type Gruber. This is because the Gruber agglutination test is not typically used for the serological identification of Yersinia pestis. The other options (A, B, C) are commonly used methods for serological identification of Y. pestis: A) Precipitation reaction involves the formation of a visible precipitate when Y. pestis antigen reacts with specific antibodies. B) Indirect hemagglutination test detects antibodies against Y. pestis by measuring the agglutination of red blood cells. C) Immunofluorescence test uses fluorescently labeled antibodies to detect specific antigens of Y. pestis. In summary, the Gruber agglutination test is not a standard method for serological identification of Yersinia pestis, unlike the other options provided.
Question 4 of 9
Each of the following statements concerning gram-negative rods is correct EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A is incorrect because whooping cough resurgence is mainly due to decreased vaccine immunity, not changing antigenicity. B is correct as P. aeruginosa can indeed cause infections with blue-green pus due to its pigment production. C is correct as H. influenzae type b capsule is a virulence factor contributing to invasive disease. D is correct as Legionella infection is acquired via inhalation of contaminated water aerosols. Therefore, A is incorrect as the rise in whooping cough is not due to changing antigenicity but vaccine immunity decline.
Question 5 of 9
For diphtheria exotoxin is true that:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because diphtheria exotoxin is absorbed into the underlying healthy tissues and spreads throughout the body. This is due to the toxin's ability to enter the bloodstream and target various organs, causing systemic effects. Choice A is incorrect as the toxin does not stay localized at the site of infection. Choice B is incorrect as diphtheria exotoxin does not directly affect neuro-muscular transmission. Choice D is also incorrect as the toxin does spread throughout the body.
Question 6 of 9
First-year schoolchildren have received tuberculin skin test (Mantoux test) at the school nurse's office. The purpose of this test was:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: To determine the children that need to receive BCG vaccination. The Mantoux test is used to identify individuals who have been exposed to Tuberculosis (TB) and need BCG vaccination for protection. Parotitis (choice A) is a viral infection unrelated to TB. Allergization rate toward rickettsia (choice B) and immune stress toward diphtheria (choice C) are not related to the Mantoux test or BCG vaccination. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer as it aligns with the purpose of the Mantoux test.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with pneumonia had sputum cultured revealing Gram-positive diplococci. The bacteria were catalase-negative and alpha-hemolytic. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. The given characteristics match this bacterium: Gram-positive diplococci, catalase-negative, and alpha-hemolytic. S. pneumoniae is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. Other choices are incorrect because Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive, Enterococcus faecalis is not alpha-hemolytic, and Klebsiella pneumoniae is not Gram-positive diplococci.
Question 8 of 9
How soon after a potentially infectious bite should a person be treated for rabies?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Within 24 hours. Rabies post-exposure prophylaxis should ideally be initiated as soon as possible after a potentially infectious bite to prevent the virus from spreading and causing symptoms. Immediate treatment is crucial to prevent the virus from reaching the central nervous system. Waiting beyond 24 hours increases the risk of the virus reaching the brain and becoming fatal. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting for 6 months, a week, or 2 weeks respectively would significantly delay treatment, allowing the virus to progress and potentially become untreatable.
Question 9 of 9
Epstein-Barr virus (HHV4) is associated with any of the following diseases:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Epstein-Barr virus causes infectious mononucleosis due to primary infection. 2. Certain types of cancer, such as Burkitt lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma, are associated with Epstein-Barr virus through oncogenic mechanisms. 3. Chickenpox and shingles are caused by varicella-zoster virus (HHV3). 4. Roseola infantum is caused by human herpesvirus 6 (HHV6). Summary: Choice A is correct as Epstein-Barr virus is linked to infectious mononucleosis and specific cancers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are caused by different herpesviruses.