Parenteral furosemide is an alternative diuretic to mannitol in the following condition

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) Cerebral edema. Parenteral furosemide is an alternative diuretic to mannitol in the treatment of cerebral edema. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can help reduce intracranial pressure by decreasing cerebral edema through diuresis. It is often used when mannitol is contraindicated or not available. Option A) Pulmonary edema is typically treated with loop diuretics like furosemide, but mannitol is not commonly used in this condition. Option B) Cirrhotic edema is usually managed with diuretics like spironolactone or loop diuretics, not mannitol. Option D) Cardiac edema is commonly treated with diuretics like furosemide, but mannitol is not indicated for this condition. Understanding the appropriate use of different diuretics in specific conditions is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially in critical care settings. Knowing the indications, contraindications, and side effects of each medication helps in making informed decisions for patient care. In the case of cerebral edema, using furosemide as an alternative to mannitol can be a life-saving intervention, making this knowledge essential for nurses, pharmacists, and other healthcare providers.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Phenytoin sodium is a medication commonly used to treat seizures and epilepsy. The correct answer, option A) Depresses ventricular automaticity, is the right choice because phenytoin primarily works by stabilizing the neuronal membrane by blocking voltage-sensitive sodium channels. This action decreases the excitability of the ventricular muscles, resulting in the depression of ventricular automaticity. Option B) Decreases AV nodal conduction is incorrect because phenytoin does not have a significant effect on atrioventricular (AV) nodal conduction. This option is misleading as it does not align with the pharmacological mechanism of phenytoin. Option C) Is given by constant intravenous infusion is incorrect because while phenytoin can be given intravenously, it is usually administered through oral routes, such as tablets or suspension, for chronic management of seizures. Option D) Decreases the conduction velocity in the ventricular fibers is incorrect because phenytoin primarily affects the neuronal membrane and not the cardiac muscle fibers directly. It does not significantly alter the conduction velocity in ventricular fibers. In an educational context, understanding the pharmacological actions of medications like phenytoin is crucial for nurses and healthcare professionals caring for patients with seizure disorders. Knowing how phenytoin works helps in monitoring for therapeutic effects, side effects, and potential drug interactions. This knowledge is essential for safe medication administration and optimal patient outcomes.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Naloxone for the treatment of acute opium poisoning. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that works by competitively binding to opioid receptors, reversing the effects of opium poisoning such as respiratory depression, sedation, and decreased level of consciousness. It is the specific antidote for opioid overdose and is administered intravenously to rapidly reverse the toxic effects of opioids. Option B) Pethidine is an opioid analgesic and would not be appropriate for treating opium poisoning as it would exacerbate the opioid effects leading to further toxicity. Option C) Nalbuphine is a mixed agonist-antagonist opioid and would not be effective in reversing the effects of opium poisoning due to its partial agonist properties. Option D) Noscapine is an opioid derivative, but it lacks significant analgesic properties and is not used as an antidote for opioid poisoning. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate antidotes for specific poisonings is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially in emergency situations where prompt and accurate treatment is necessary to save lives. Knowing the mechanism of action and specific indications for medications like naloxone can help healthcare providers make informed decisions and provide optimal care to patients experiencing drug toxicities.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is D) Reversing extrapyramidal side effects caused by phenothiazines. Explanation: H1 receptor antagonists, such as diphenhydramine and promethazine, are commonly used to combat allergies, motion sickness, and allergic conjunctivitis by blocking the action of histamine at the H1 receptor. However, they have limited efficacy in reversing extrapyramidal side effects caused by phenothiazines, which are usually related to dopamine receptor blockade. Therefore, the correct answer is D because H1 receptor antagonists do not directly target the underlying mechanism of extrapyramidal side effects. Why others are wrong: A) Combating motion sickness - H1 receptor antagonists are commonly used to combat motion sickness by blocking histamine receptors in the brain, so this option is incorrect. B) Systemic anaphylaxis - H1 receptor antagonists are used in the treatment of allergic reactions, including systemic anaphylaxis, so this option is incorrect. C) Allergic conjunctivitis - H1 receptor antagonists are effective in treating allergic conjunctivitis by blocking histamine receptors in the eye, so this option is incorrect. Educational context: Understanding the specific actions and limitations of different drug classes is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially when managing adverse effects or choosing appropriate treatments. This question highlights the importance of knowing the specific uses and limitations of H1 receptor antagonists in different clinical scenarios, enhancing critical thinking skills and clinical decision-making abilities.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is C) All have some atropine-like action. Antihistamines, phenothiazines, tricyclic antidepressants, and antiparkinsonian agents all share the common property of having some atropine-like action, which refers to their ability to block acetylcholine receptors. This leads to various side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention. Option A) All produce CNS stimulation is incorrect because while some of these drugs may have stimulant effects, not all of them produce CNS stimulation. Phenothiazines, for example, are known for their sedative effects. Option B) All have adrenergic action is incorrect because these drugs do not all act directly on adrenergic receptors. Each drug class has different mechanisms of action. Option D) All have long plasma half-life is incorrect because the half-life of these drugs varies within and between classes. It is not a common property shared by all of them. Understanding these common properties of drug classes is crucial for nurses and healthcare professionals when administering medications, as it helps in anticipating potential side effects and drug interactions. It is essential for safe and effective patient care to have a solid grasp of pharmacology principles.