ATI RN
jarvis physical assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Papilledema is a cause for concern because it is suggestive of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Papilledema is swelling of the optic disc caused by increased intracranial pressure. This swelling is a result of pressure being transmitted through the subarachnoid space surrounding the optic nerve. Therefore, the correct answer is C) Increased intracranial pressure. Option A) Optic atrophy is incorrect because papilledema is a sign of increased pressure, not optic nerve damage. Option B) Microaneurysms are not related to papilledema, as they are small outpouchings of blood vessels typically seen in conditions like diabetic retinopathy. Option D) Retinal hemorrhage is also not related to papilledema, as it refers to bleeding in the retina rather than optic disc swelling. Understanding the significance of papilledema in relation to increased intracranial pressure is crucial in clinical practice. It serves as a warning sign of potentially serious conditions such as brain tumors, meningitis, or hydrocephalus. Recognizing this association can prompt healthcare providers to investigate further and intervene promptly to prevent serious consequences for the patient.
Question 2 of 5
A patient presents with an elongated head with bony prominence of the forehead, nose, and lower jaw. These facial features could be suggestive of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this case, the correct answer is B) Acromegaly. Acromegaly is a condition caused by the overproduction of growth hormone in adults, usually due to a pituitary adenoma. This excess growth hormone leads to abnormal growth of bones and tissues, resulting in characteristic facial features such as elongated head, bony prominences in the forehead, nose, and lower jaw. Option A) Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by proteinuria, edema, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidemia, but it does not present with the specific facial features described in the question. Option C) Cushing's syndrome is caused by excessive cortisol production, leading to symptoms such as central obesity, thin skin, muscle weakness, and facial fullness ("moon face"). While Cushing's syndrome can affect facial appearance, it does not typically cause the bony prominence seen in acromegaly. Option D) Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by motor symptoms such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. It does not typically present with the bony facial changes described in acromegaly. In an educational context, understanding the distinct clinical features of different conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management. Recognizing the unique facial characteristics of acromegaly can help healthcare providers differentiate it from other conditions with overlapping symptoms, leading to timely intervention and improved patient outcomes.
Question 3 of 5
During an acute attack of gout, the nurse practitioner knows NOT to prescribe:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of an acute attack of gout, the nurse practitioner should avoid prescribing Allopurinol (Zyloprim) due to its mechanism of action. Allopurinol is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used for long-term management of gout by reducing uric acid production. However, during an acute attack, initiating or increasing Allopurinol can worsen symptoms initially due to the rapid release of uric acid from tissue breakdown. Colchicine (Colcrys) is a suitable choice for acute gout attacks as it helps reduce inflammation and pain by inhibiting neutrophil migration. Steroids and NSAIDs are also commonly used during acute gout flares to reduce inflammation and pain. Both options are appropriate choices for managing symptoms during an acute attack. Educationally, understanding the appropriate pharmacological management of gout based on the phase of the disease is crucial for nurses and nurse practitioners. Differentiating between medications suitable for acute attacks versus long-term management is essential to provide effective care and symptom relief for patients with gout.
Question 4 of 5
A 40-year-old admits to multiple sex partners and presents with several lesions over his body. Findings reveal hemorrhagic vesiculopustular lesions over the hands and feet. These lesions are most likely associated with:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Gonococcemia. Gonococcemia is a condition caused by the dissemination of the Neisseria gonorrhoeae bacteria in the bloodstream, leading to systemic manifestations. In this case, the patient's presentation of hemorrhagic vesiculopustular lesions over the hands and feet is characteristic of gonococcemia. The presence of multiple sex partners increases the risk of contracting gonorrhea, further supporting this diagnosis. Option B) Infective endocarditis is incorrect because the presentation of hemorrhagic vesiculopustular lesions is not typical of this condition. Infective endocarditis usually presents with findings related to heart valve damage and systemic infection. Option C) Hyperthyroidism is incorrect as it does not typically present with hemorrhagic vesiculopustular lesions. Hyperthyroidism is associated with symptoms such as weight loss, heat intolerance, and palpitations due to excess thyroid hormone production. Option D) Peripheral vascular disease is also incorrect as it usually presents with symptoms related to poor blood flow to the extremities, such as pain, numbness, and skin changes like ulcers or gangrene. It does not typically manifest as hemorrhagic vesiculopustular lesions. Educationally, understanding the clinical manifestations of different conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment. This case highlights the importance of considering the patient's risk factors, symptoms, and physical exam findings to narrow down the differential diagnosis and arrive at the correct conclusion. It also emphasizes the significance of a thorough assessment in identifying key clues that can guide clinical decision-making.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse practitioner examines the skin of an elderly patient. Which finding below is NOT a benign lesion associated with the aging process?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is D) Dermatophytosis. Dermatophytosis is a fungal infection of the skin that is not a benign lesion associated with the normal aging process. A) Xerosis is a common benign finding in elderly patients due to decreased sebaceous gland activity and reduced skin hydration. B) Cherry angiomas and senile purpura are benign vascular lesions commonly seen in the elderly population as a result of aging-related changes in blood vessel structure and function. C) Senile keratosis and senile lentigines are also benign skin changes associated with aging, characterized by the development of benign growths and pigmented spots on the skin over time. Understanding the various skin changes associated with aging is crucial for healthcare providers to differentiate between benign age-related conditions and potentially harmful skin lesions. Recognizing these differences can help in providing appropriate care and treatment for elderly patients. It is important for healthcare providers to have a comprehensive understanding of dermatological conditions to accurately assess and manage skin issues in the aging population.