P. T. is a 58-year-old female who is admitted with chest pain and shortness of breath and is found to have a large pulmonary embolus. Her systolic blood pressure is falling, and a diagnosis of obstructive shock is made. Cardiac pressure would likely demonstrate

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Obstructive shock, such as in this case of a large pulmonary embolus causing obstructive shock, results in a sudden increase in right ventricular afterload due to obstruction of blood flow. This leads to right heart failure and decreased left ventricular preload, ultimately resulting in decreased cardiac output. The elevated right-sided pressures will be reflected by elevated right atrial and ventricular pressures, while the left ventricular pressures will be decreased due to decreased preload. This commonly leads to a situation known as acute cor pulmonale, where the right heart becomes dilated and dysfunctional in response to the increased afterload.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Anxiety and sleeplessness can contribute to the risk of delirium and prolonged length of stay for the patient undergoing a major transverse abdominal procedure. Delirium is a common complication seen in patients who are anxious and sleep-deprived, especially postoperatively. It is important to address these issues preoperatively to help prevent delirium and ensure a smoother recovery process for the patient. By prescribing a sleeping agent, the AGACNP aims to reduce anxiety and promote a good night's sleep, which can ultimately decrease the risk of delirium and lead to better outcomes for the patient.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Anticholinergics are not typically used in the management of acute cardiogenic shock after myocardial infarction. Anticholinergic medications may worsen tachycardia and exacerbate myocardial ischemia by increasing heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand. Therefore, the AGACNP should avoid using anticholinergics in this patient population.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The key clinical manifestation indicating a possible subarachnoid hemorrhage in this scenario is that the patient had been complaining of a headache before losing consciousness. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is a type of stroke that results from bleeding into the space between the arachnoid membrane and the pia mater surrounding the brain. Severe headache, often described as the worst headache of one's life, is a classic symptom of subarachnoid hemorrhage. The sudden onset of a severe headache before loss of consciousness raises the suspicion for this type of stroke. Other symptoms such as mental confusion and weakness may also be present, but the headache is a crucial indicator in this case.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The best approach to managing the patient with ascites who has responded to spironolactone with weight loss is to add a loop diuretic to the current regimen. Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist that primarily works on the distal convoluted tubule, while loop diuretics, such as furosemide, act on the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. Combining these two diuretics can result in a synergistic effect, increasing diuresis and reducing fluid retention in patients with ascites. This combination therapy is often used in patients who do not respond adequately to spironolactone alone, and it is considered a common strategy in the management of ascites due to cirrhosis. Therefore, adding a loop diuretic to the spironolactone regimen is the most appropriate next step to optimize diuresis and fluid management in this patient.