Outbreak of cases of typhoid fever occurs in the community. Nurse Keena should inform the residents that the transmission of the disease is through _______.

Questions 165

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Outbreak of cases of typhoid fever occurs in the community. Nurse Keena should inform the residents that the transmission of the disease is through _______.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Food and water. Typhoid fever is primarily transmitted through contaminated food and water by the bacterium Salmonella typhi. The bacteria are shed in the feces of infected individuals and can contaminate water sources or food prepared with contaminated water. This transmission route aligns with the typical epidemiology of typhoid fever outbreaks. Now, let's discuss why the other choices are incorrect: A: A vector - Typhoid fever is not transmitted by a vector such as mosquitoes or ticks. B: Blood and body fluids - Typhoid fever is not typically spread through blood or body fluids but rather through ingestion of contaminated food or water. D: Air - Typhoid fever is not an airborne disease and is not transmitted through the air.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following directly VIOLATES the Patient's Bill of Rights?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because disclosing a patient's HIV status to family members violates the patient's right to privacy and confidentiality. Patient confidentiality is a fundamental aspect of the Patient's Bill of Rights, ensuring that personal health information is protected. The other choices (A, C, D) do not directly violate the Patient's Bill of Rights. Choice A relates to transparency in billing, choice C is about honesty in communication, and choice D is about timely communication with the physician, all of which are in line with patient rights and quality care.

Question 3 of 9

Upon entry of the patient to ER, the nurse must FIRST perform which nursing intervention?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cleanse the bite with soap and running water. This is the first nursing intervention because it is crucial to prevent infection. Cleaning the bite area helps remove bacteria and debris, reducing the risk of infection. Injecting with rabies immune globulin (choice A) and rabies vaccine (choice C) should be done later as per protocol after assessing the situation. Administering pain reliever (choice D) is important but not the first priority in this scenario.

Question 4 of 9

What a patient has bleeding after surgery the PACU nurse, expects which color if coming from the arterial source?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bright red and spurts with the heartbeat. This type of bleeding indicates arterial bleeding, which is oxygen-rich blood coming directly from the arteries. Arterial bleeding is bright red in color due to the high oxygen content and spurts with the heartbeat as it is under higher pressure. This rapid spurting is characteristic of arterial bleeding and requires immediate attention to control the bleeding source. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they describe characteristics of venous bleeding, not arterial bleeding. Venous bleeding is dark in color, flows slowly, and generally oozes as it is oxygen-depleted blood returning to the heart. Therefore, the correct answer is B based on the specific characteristics of arterial bleeding.

Question 5 of 9

A woman in active labor is receiving an epidural analgesic for pain relief. What assessment findings indicate a potential complication of epidural analgesia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: One potential complication of epidural analgesia in labor is maternal hypotension. The epidural analgesic can cause vasodilation, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. Maternal hypotension can result in decreased placental perfusion, which may jeopardize fetal well-being. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor the maternal blood pressure closely and intervene promptly if hypotension occurs by providing IV fluids or administering medication to raise blood pressure. Uterine hyperstimulation, fetal tachycardia, and respiratory depression are not typically associated with epidural analgesia as complications.

Question 6 of 9

A patient presents with muscle weakness and fatigue. Upon further examination, it is revealed that the patient has decreased acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Myasthenia gravis. In myasthenia gravis, there is a decrease in acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle weakness and fatigue. This occurs due to autoimmune destruction of these receptors. ALS (B) affects motor neurons, not acetylcholine receptors. Guillain-Barre syndrome (C) is an autoimmune disorder affecting peripheral nerves, not neuromuscular junctions. Muscular dystrophy (D) is a genetic disorder causing muscle degeneration, not affecting acetylcholine receptors.

Question 7 of 9

A patient presents with petechiae, ecchymoses, and gingival bleeding. Laboratory tests reveal prolonged bleeding time, normal platelet count, and normal PT and aPTT. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Acquired von Willebrand syndrome. This condition is characterized by a defect in von Willebrand factor function, leading to prolonged bleeding time and mucocutaneous bleeding. Normal platelet count rules out Glanzmann thrombasthenia and Bernard-Soulier syndrome which are platelet disorders. Normal PT and aPTT rule out Hemophilia A, a coagulation factor deficiency. Acquired von Willebrand syndrome is the most likely cause based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings.

Question 8 of 9

Nurse Pedrito is teaching a client with Parkinson's disease on ways to prevent curvatures of the spine associated with the disease. To prevent spinal flexion, the nurse should tell the client to _________.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Periodically lie in prone position without a neck pillow. This position helps to prevent spinal flexion by promoting extension of the spine and stretching of the hip flexors. Prone positioning also helps maintain alignment of the spine and prevents contractures. Resting in supine position (choice A) with the head elevated does not promote spinal extension. Sleeping only in dorsal recumbent position (choice B) may lead to spinal flexion. Sleeping on either side (choice D) does not specifically address spinal flexion prevention.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following is a characteristic of qualitative research?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Inductive process. Qualitative research typically involves an inductive approach, where researchers gather data, analyze patterns, and develop theories or hypotheses based on the observed data. This allows for exploration and discovery of new insights. A) Deductive process is not a characteristic of qualitative research, as deductive reasoning involves starting with a hypothesis and testing it with data. B) Fixed research design is not common in qualitative research, which often uses flexible and adaptive designs to accommodate emergent findings. C) Control over the context is not a key characteristic of qualitative research, as it often involves studying real-world settings with natural contexts rather than controlled environments. In summary, the inductive process is a key characteristic of qualitative research as it allows for exploration and theory development based on observed data, distinguishing it from deductive approaches, fixed designs, and controlled contexts.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days