ATI RN
microbiology an introduction tortora test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
OSHA was established in
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 1971. OSHA, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, was established in 1971 under the Occupational Safety and Health Act signed by President Richard Nixon. This act aimed to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for employees by setting and enforcing standards. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as OSHA was not established in those years. Option A (1921) is too early, option C (1980) is after OSHA was already established, and option D (1985) is also too late. Therefore, the correct answer is B, 1971, as it aligns with the historical establishment of OSHA.
Question 2 of 5
Planned mass vaccination of all newborn 5-7 day old children against tuberulosis plays an important role in tuberculosis prevention. In this case the following vaccine is applied:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: BCG (Bacille Calmette-Guerin). BCG is the vaccine used for tuberculosis prevention, not only for newborns but also for older children and adults. BCG helps in protecting against severe forms of tuberculosis in infants. Diphteria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine (choice B) is for protection against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, not tuberculosis. Diphtheria and tetanus anatoxin vaccine (choice C) provides protection against diphtheria and tetanus, not tuberculosis. Adsorbed diphtheria vaccine (choice D) is specifically for diphtheria, not tuberculosis. Therefore, the correct choice is A as it is the only vaccine related to tuberculosis prevention.
Question 3 of 5
A patient has got pain in the axillary area, rise of temperature developed 10 hours ago. On examination: shaky gait is evident, the tongue is coated with white deposit. The pulse is frequent. The painful lymphatic nodes are revealed in the axillary area. The skin over the lymph nodes is erythematous and glistering. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute purulent lymphadenitis. The symptoms described indicate an acute bacterial infection of the lymph nodes. The presence of painful lymph nodes, erythema, and shiny appearance of the skin overlying the nodes suggest an inflammatory process. The rise in temperature and frequent pulse indicate an active infection. The white-coated tongue may be a sign of systemic involvement. The shaky gait may indicate systemic toxicity. Bubonic plague (A) presents with buboes, not just painful lymph nodes. Lymphogranulomatosis (C) is a type of lymphoma and would not present with these acute bacterial infection symptoms. Anthrax (D) typically presents with a black eschar and is less likely in this context.
Question 4 of 5
A 43-year-old cattle farm worker is brought to the surgeon with fever, malaise, and inflamed lesions on his hands and arms. He reports that about 2 weeks before his presentation at the hospital he noticed small, painless, pruritic papules that quickly enlarged and developed a central vesicle. The vesicles developed into erosion and left painless necrotic ulcers with black, depressed eschar. Gram's staining of the ulcer reveals gram-positive spore-forming bacilli. Which of the following diseases is the most likely cause of these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anthrax. The clinical presentation of painless necrotic ulcers with black eschar, along with the gram-positive spore-forming bacilli seen on Gram's staining, is classic for cutaneous anthrax. Anthrax is caused by Bacillus anthracis, which produces spores and can lead to skin lesions in individuals working with animals or animal products. Choice B, Chickenpox, typically presents with vesicular rash all over the body. Choice C, Syphilis, is caused by Treponema pallidum and does not present with the characteristic eschar seen in the patient. Choice D, Tularemia, caused by Francisella tularensis, presents with ulceroglandular lesions but lacks the black eschar characteristic of anthrax.
Question 5 of 5
A 45-year-old patient complains of fever up to 40oC, general weakness, headache and spasmodic contraction of muscles in the region of a shin wound. The patient got injured five days ago when tilling soil and didn't seek medical attention. What kind of wound infection can be suspected?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The patient's symptoms align with tetanus infection, such as muscle spasms and fever. Step 2: Tetanus is caused by Clostridium tetani bacteria found in soil. Step 3: The wound from tilling soil provides an entry point for the bacteria. Step 4: Delayed seeking medical attention increases the risk of tetanus development. Step 5: Tetanus toxin affects the nervous system, leading to muscle stiffness and spasms. Summary: Choice A is correct due to symptom alignment, bacterial source, wound type, delayed treatment, and specific neurological effects. Choices B, C, and D lack these specific connections to the given scenario.