Organizations are made up of intertwined links and diversified choices that generate unanticipated consequences. This defines which of the following theories?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chaos theory. Chaos theory explains how complex systems, like organizations, can exhibit unpredictable behavior due to small changes in initial conditions. In this context, the interconnectedness and diverse choices within organizations result in unanticipated consequences. Contingency theory (A) focuses on adapting to environmental factors, closed system theory (B) suggests organizations are isolated from the environment, and open system theory (C) emphasizes interactions with the external environment, but none directly address the unpredictable consequences arising from intertwined links and diverse choices within organizations like Chaos theory does.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Change union affiliation. Decertification refers to the process of employees voting to remove a union as their bargaining representative. This means changing or ending their current union affiliation. A: Encouraging union affiliation is not related to decertification, as it involves promoting rather than changing union membership. C: Rewarding union affiliation is not accurate for decertification, as it does not involve rewarding but rather changing the affiliation. D: Empowering union affiliation is not the correct choice, as decertification does not enhance but rather changes or removes union representation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 24 hours. Reporting a major incident within 24 hours is crucial for prompt resolution and mitigation of potential impacts. This timeframe allows for timely assessment, communication, and implementation of necessary actions. Reporting within 24 hours enables the organization to adhere to regulatory requirements, maintain transparency, and initiate the incident management process effectively. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as delaying reporting beyond 24 hours can result in increased risks, hinder the organization's ability to respond effectively, and may lead to non-compliance with regulations.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because reviewing the information with the client and family should be addressed first to ensure understanding and clarity. This step allows for immediate feedback and corrections if needed, promoting effective education. Taking vital signs (A) can be done after educating the client. Answering questions (B) and evaluating teaching (C) come after providing the necessary information.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The main purpose of a clinical audit is to identify areas for improvement. This involves reviewing current practices, identifying gaps or inefficiencies, and implementing changes to enhance the quality of patient care. Patient satisfaction (A) is important but not the primary goal of a clinical audit. Evaluating the effectiveness of clinical practices (B) may be a part of the audit process, but not the main purpose. Standardizing patient care protocols (D) is beneficial but is not the primary aim of a clinical audit, which focuses on continuous quality improvement.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because effective delegation involves assigning tasks to appropriate staff members while providing oversight. This ensures tasks are completed safely and accurately. Retaining all tasks (A) does not promote staff development. Assigning tasks without supervision (B) can lead to errors. Avoiding delegation (D) limits staff growth. Effective delegation (C) maximizes efficiency and empowers staff.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because having a weekly inspection checklist for oxygen equipment ensures the client is monitoring the equipment regularly for safety. Choice B is incorrect as storing an oxygen tank on its side can be dangerous. Choice C is not directly related to oxygen safety. Choice D is incorrect because wool blankets can create static electricity, which is a fire hazard.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Self-staffing. Self-staffing refers to employees within a unit scheduling themselves to work according to the unit's needs. This approach empowers employees to manage their own schedules, ensuring coverage within the unit. A: Flexible staffing typically involves adjusting staffing levels based on fluctuating demand, not limited to a specific unit. C: Internal pools usually refer to a group of employees who can be assigned to various units based on need, not limited to a specific unit. D: Management scheduling involves supervisors or managers creating schedules for employees, not necessarily limited to a specific unit. In summary, the term for working on a schedule within the unit involving only those who are working within that unit is self-staffing because it allows employees to self-schedule within their own unit's context.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Flexibility. In a fast-paced healthcare environment, being flexible is crucial to adapt to changes quickly. It allows you to navigate uncertainties, respond to new challenges, and adjust your approach as needed. Being friendly (A) is important but not as critical as flexibility. Humility (B) is valuable but may not directly impact success in a dynamic environment. While the ability to anticipate consequences (C) is beneficial, it does not provide the same level of adaptability and versatility as flexibility does in a rapidly changing healthcare setting.