ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
One of the lecturers discussed the complications that patients may have while on IV therapy. Which of the following is the most common Complication that IV patients may contract while on IV therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Phlebitis is the most common complication that patients may contract while on IV therapy. Phlebitis is the inflammation of the vein where the IV is inserted, which can cause redness, pain, and swelling along the vein. It can be caused by mechanical irritation, chemical irritation, or infection from the IV catheter. Prompt removal of the IV catheter and appropriate treatment are necessary to manage phlebitis and prevent further complications. While embolism, cardiac overload, and aneurysm are potential complications of IV therapy, phlebitis is more commonly seen in clinical practice.
Question 2 of 9
A patient undergoing mechanical ventilation in the ICU develops ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) caused by multidrug-resistant organisms (MDROs). What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's infection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for managing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) caused by multidrug-resistant organisms (MDROs) is to administer combination antibiotic therapy targeting the specific resistant pathogens identified in the patient's culture results. MDROs are often resistant to multiple antibiotics, so combination therapy is required to maximize the chances of effectively treating the infection. Identifying the specific pathogens causing the VAP through cultures is crucial in tailoring the antibiotic therapy to target these organisms effectively. Implementing appropriate antibiotic therapy promptly is essential to improve outcomes and prevent further complications in patients with VAP caused by MDROs. Option A is the priority intervention in this case to address the multidrug-resistant nature of the infection and provide targeted treatment for the patient.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with metabolic acidosis. Which compensatory mechanism is the body most likely to employ to normalize pH?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a patient with chronic kidney disease presenting with metabolic acidosis, the compensatory mechanism the body is most likely to employ to normalize pH is increased bicarbonate reabsorption in the kidneys. The kidneys play a crucial role in maintaining acid-base balance by regulating bicarbonate levels in the blood. In metabolic acidosis, there is an excess of non-volatile acids in the body, leading to a decrease in blood pH. To compensate for this acidosis, the kidneys increase the reabsorption of filtered bicarbonate ions from the renal tubules back into the blood. This process helps to raise the bicarbonate levels in the blood, which in turn helps to neutralize excess hydrogen ions and restore the blood pH towards normal levels. Hyperventilation (A) is a compensatory mechanism for respiratory acidosis, not metabolic acidosis. Increased renal excretion of hydrogen ions (C) and decreased renal excretion of bicarbonate ions
Question 4 of 9
The diagnostic examination for osteoporosis is geared towards measuring
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The diagnostic examination for osteoporosis typically involves measuring bone density. This is usually done through a dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan, which is considered the gold standard for assessing bone density. Osteoporosis is characterized by decreased bone mass and deterioration of bone tissue, leading to increased bone fragility and risk of fractures. Measuring bone density helps in diagnosing osteoporosis by identifying areas of low bone density, assessing the risk of fractures, and monitoring the effectiveness of treatment. Weight, blood volume, and height are not directly used as primary indicators for diagnosing osteoporosis.
Question 5 of 9
A patient presents with a palpable thyroid nodule and signs of hyperthyroidism. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy reveals follicular cells with nuclear features suggestive of malignancy. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Follicular thyroid carcinoma is a type of thyroid cancer that arises from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. Patients with follicular thyroid carcinoma may present with a palpable thyroid nodule, which in this case is causing signs of hyperthyroidism due to the overproduction of thyroid hormones by the malignant cells. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy revealing follicular cells with nuclear features suggestive of malignancy further supports the diagnosis of follicular thyroid carcinoma in this scenario.
Question 6 of 9
When the patient turned 69 years old, Orinase was discontinued and NPH insulin is prescribed for her. After several months, she is determined to be suffering from sumogyi effect. Which of the following conditons will most likely result when the patient is receiving too much insulin?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a patient is receiving too much insulin, the most likely result is hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. The excess insulin causes the blood glucose level to drop too low, leading to symptoms such as sweating, tremors, confusion, and in severe cases, seizures. The body responds to hypoglycemia by releasing counterregulatory hormones such as glucagon, epinephrine, and cortisol, which work to increase the blood glucose level. This rebound effect, known as the Somogyi effect, can result in the patient experiencing high blood glucose levels after a period of insufficient glucose supply due to excessive insulin administration.
Question 7 of 9
If Baby Sharon develops dehydration, what is the FIRST sign to look for by Nurse Juvy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sunken fontanels are one of the earliest signs of dehydration in infants. Fontanels are soft spots on an infant's head where the skull bones have not yet fused together. If a baby's fontanel appears sunken, it indicates that the baby is likely dehydrated. This occurs because when there is a lack of fluid in the body, the soft spots on the head will appear depressed or sunken. It is crucial for Nurse Juvy to closely monitor the fontanels of Baby Sharon, as identifying dehydration early is essential for prompt intervention and preventing complications.
Question 8 of 9
When documenting the procedures done, which of the following should NOT be recorded?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In documenting procedures, it is essential to record information that is relevant to the specific procedure done. Recording the date (A), lot number (C), and needle gauge (D) are critical details that provide important context and traceability for the procedure performed. The date helps to keep track of when the procedure was conducted. The lot number is essential for tracking the specific batch of materials used in the procedure. The needle gauge is important for ensuring the appropriate equipment is used for the procedure. However, recording the manufacturer (B) is not necessary for documenting the procedures as it does not directly impact the quality or traceability of the procedure itself.
Question 9 of 9
The reasons for the nurse wishing to enhance his/her communication skill is to be able to establish Rapport, EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The primary goal of enhancing communication skills for a nurse is to establish rapport with patients, which can lead to better outcomes, increased patient satisfaction, and improved quality of care. Generating a threat between the nurse and the patient is counterproductive to building rapport and does not align with the intention of enhancing communication skills in healthcare settings.