ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions
Question 1 of 5
One of the lecturers discussed the complications that patients may have while on IV therapy. Which of the following is the most common Complication that IV patients may contract while on IV therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Phlebitis is the most common complication that patients may contract while on IV therapy. Phlebitis is the inflammation of the vein where the IV is inserted, which can cause redness, pain, and swelling along the vein. It can be caused by mechanical irritation, chemical irritation, or infection from the IV catheter. Prompt removal of the IV catheter and appropriate treatment are necessary to manage phlebitis and prevent further complications. While embolism, cardiac overload, and aneurysm are potential complications of IV therapy, phlebitis is more commonly seen in clinical practice.
Question 2 of 5
A patient undergoing mechanical ventilation in the ICU develops ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) caused by multidrug-resistant organisms (MDROs). What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's infection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for managing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) caused by multidrug-resistant organisms (MDROs) is to administer combination antibiotic therapy targeting the specific resistant pathogens identified in the patient's culture results. MDROs are often resistant to multiple antibiotics, so combination therapy is required to maximize the chances of effectively treating the infection. Identifying the specific pathogens causing the VAP through cultures is crucial in tailoring the antibiotic therapy to target these organisms effectively. Implementing appropriate antibiotic therapy promptly is essential to improve outcomes and prevent further complications in patients with VAP caused by MDROs. Option A is the priority intervention in this case to address the multidrug-resistant nature of the infection and provide targeted treatment for the patient.
Question 3 of 5
A patient presents with a painful, vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution on the left thorax. The patient reports a history of chickenpox during childhood. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The presentation of a painful, vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution on the left thorax, specifically in a patient with a history of chickenpox, is most suggestive of herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles. Herpes zoster is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus responsible for chickenpox. After a person recovers from chickenpox, the virus remains dormant in the nerve cells and can reactivate years later to cause shingles. The rash in herpes zoster typically progresses through different stages, including red patches leading to fluid-filled blisters. The characteristic rash typically appears unilaterally and is usually preceded by pain, burning, or tingling in the affected area. Unlike herpes simplex virus infection, which can cause similar lesions but is not typically localized to a specific dermatome, herpes zoster presents as a distinct unilateral cluster of vesicles along
Question 4 of 5
When communicating with a patient who is experiencing delirium, what is the nurse's priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When communicating with a patient experiencing delirium, the nurse's priority is to provide clear and simple explanations to minimize confusion. Delirium can cause disorientation, confusion, and impaired cognitive function, making it difficult for the patient to understand complex information. Using simple language and clear explanations can help the patient better comprehend the situation and reduce anxiety. It is essential for the nurse to speak calmly, use reassuring gestures, and maintain a supportive presence to effectively communicate with a delirious patient. This approach can help establish a sense of trust and foster a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship during the challenging experience of delirium.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with asthma experiences nocturnal cough, wheezing, and chest tightness several times per week. Which of the following medications is most appropriate for long-term control of asthma symptoms and prevention of exacerbations?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fluticasone/salmeterol (Advair) is a combination medication consisting of an inhaled corticosteroid (fluticasone) and a long-acting beta-agonist (salmeterol). This combination medication is recommended for long-term control of asthma symptoms and for the prevention of exacerbations. Fluticasone reduces airway inflammation, while salmeterol helps to relax the muscles of the airways, improving breathing. Using this combination medication regularly can help manage asthma symptoms and reduce the risk of asthma attacks. It is not appropriate to use short-acting beta-agonists like albuterol (salbutamol) on a long-term basis for asthma control. Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) is an anticholinergic bronchodilator that is more commonly used for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD
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