ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
One of the functions of nursing care of the terminally ill is to support the patient and his or her family as they come to terms with the diagnosis and progression of the disease process. How should nurses support patients and their families during this process? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is correct because understanding the illness from the patient's perspective helps nurses provide individualized care. By empathizing with the patient's experience, nurses can tailor support to meet their specific needs. Describing personal experiences (A) may not be appropriate as it shifts the focus from the patient. Encouraging fighting for a cure (B) may not align with the patient's wishes for quality of life. Assisting with life review (D) can be beneficial but may not be a priority for all patients. Providing interventions for end-of-life closure (E) is important, but understanding the illness from the patient's perspective (C) forms the foundation for effective support.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is completing a nutritional status of a patient who has been admitted with AIDS-related complications. What components should the nurse include in this assessment? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level. Serum albumin is an important indicator of nutritional status, as low levels may indicate malnutrition or inflammation commonly seen in AIDS patients. Weight history (B) is also relevant as weight changes can reflect nutritional status. White blood cell count (C) is not directly related to nutritional status. Body mass index (D) is a calculation based on weight and height, not a direct measure of nutritional status. Blood urea nitrogen (E) is a measure of kidney function, not a specific indicator of nutritional status. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on assessing the patient's serum albumin level for nutritional status evaluation in this case.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with a genital herpes exacerbation has a nursing diagnosis of acute pain related to the genital lesions. What nursing intervention best addresses this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Keep the lesions clean and dry. This intervention helps prevent infection and promotes healing. Cleaning the lesions reduces the risk of secondary infections and discomfort. Keeping the area dry can also help alleviate pain and discomfort associated with moisture. Covering with a topical antibiotic (A) may not address pain directly and could potentially irritate the lesions. Applying a topical NSAID (C) may provide some pain relief but does not address the primary need to keep the lesions clean and dry. Remaining on bed rest (D) is not necessary for managing acute pain related to genital lesions.
Question 4 of 9
An 86-year-old patient is experiencing uncontrollableleakage of urine with a strong desire to void and even leaks on the way to the toilet. Whichprioritynursing diagnosiswill the nurse include in the patient’s plan of care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Urge urinary incontinence Rationale: 1. The patient's symptoms of strong desire to void and leakage on the way to the toilet indicate urge urinary incontinence. 2. Urge urinary incontinence is characterized by a sudden, strong need to urinate with involuntary leakage. Incorrect Choices: A: Functional urinary incontinence - This type is due to factors such as cognitive or physical impairment, not a strong urge to void. C: Impaired skin integrity - While important, this is a potential consequence of urinary incontinence, not the priority nursing diagnosis. D: Urinary retention - This would present with the inability to empty the bladder, not symptoms of frequent urge to void and leakage.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse who works in an oncology clinic is assessing a patient who has arrived for a 2-month follow-up appointment following chemotherapy. The nurse notes that the patients skin appears yellow. Which blood tests should be done to further explore this clinical sign?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver function tests (LFTs). Yellow skin can indicate jaundice, a sign of liver dysfunction, often seen in patients with liver issues or chemotherapy-related liver toxicity. LFTs including bilirubin, ALT, AST, and ALP can help assess liver function. B: Complete blood count (CBC) and C: Platelet count are not directly related to yellow skin and would not provide information on liver function. D: Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine are tests for kidney function, not liver function. While kidney dysfunction can sometimes cause yellow skin, LFTs are more specific for assessing liver function in this context.
Question 6 of 9
A patient is scheduled for enucleation and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about postoperative care. What aspects of care should the nurse describe to the patient? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Application of topical antibiotic ointment. After enucleation, there is a risk of infection at the surgical site. By applying topical antibiotic ointment as directed, the patient can help prevent infection and promote healing. This is a crucial aspect of postoperative care. B: Maintenance of a supine position for the first 48 hours postoperative is incorrect. Patients may be advised to avoid lying flat on their back to prevent complications such as pressure on the surgical site. C: Fluid restriction to prevent orbital edema is incorrect. Fluid restriction is not typically necessary post-enucleation unless specifically advised by the healthcare provider. D: Administration of loop diuretics to prevent orbital edema is incorrect. Loop diuretics are not typically used for preventing orbital edema post-enucleation. E: Use of an ocular pressure dressing is incorrect. While dressings may be used postoperatively, the application of topical antibiotic ointment is more
Question 7 of 9
A patient who is receiving care for osteosarcoma has been experiencing severe pain since being diagnosed. As a result, the patient has been receiving analgesics on both a scheduled and PRN basis. For the past several hours, however, the patients level of consciousness has declined and she is now unresponsive. How should the patients pain control regimen be affected?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a patient's level of consciousness declines and becomes unresponsive, it may indicate a potential overdose of analgesics. To ensure patient safety, IV analgesics should be withheld and replaced with transdermal analgesics, which provide a more controlled and gradual release of medication. This switch helps prevent further overdose and adverse effects. Continuing the current pain control regimen (Choice A) may worsen the situation. Placing the pain control regimen on hold (Choice B) may lead to inadequate pain management. Reducing analgesic dosages (Choice D) may not be sufficient in addressing the overdose issue.
Question 8 of 9
In determining malnourishment in a patient, which assessment finding is consistent with this disorder?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Malnourishment often leads to iron deficiency anemia, causing spoon-shaped nails (koilonychia). Step 2: Koilonychia is a classic sign of chronic malnutrition and iron deficiency. Step 3: Moist lips (A) and pink conjunctivae (B) are not specific to malnourishment. Step 4: Not easily plucked hair (D) is more related to hair health rather than malnutrition.
Question 9 of 9
A patient comes to the ophthalmology clinic for an eye examination. The patient tells the nurse that he often sees floaters in his vision. How should the nurse best interpret this subjective assessment finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because floaters are commonly caused by age-related changes in the vitreous humor of the eye, such as the formation of tiny fibers or clumps. These floaters are typically harmless and not a cause for concern. Choice B is incorrect because glasses do not affect floaters in the eye. Choice C is incorrect because floaters are not a primary symptom of glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect because weakened ciliary muscles are not typically associated with floaters. Therefore, the most appropriate interpretation is that seeing floaters is a normal aging process of the eye.