ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
One of the functions of nursing care of the terminally ill is to support the patient and his or her family as they come to terms with the diagnosis and progression of the disease process. How should nurses support patients and their families during this process? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is correct because understanding the illness from the patient's perspective helps nurses provide individualized care. By empathizing with the patient's experience, nurses can tailor support to meet their specific needs. Describing personal experiences (A) may not be appropriate as it shifts the focus from the patient. Encouraging fighting for a cure (B) may not align with the patient's wishes for quality of life. Assisting with life review (D) can be beneficial but may not be a priority for all patients. Providing interventions for end-of-life closure (E) is important, but understanding the illness from the patient's perspective (C) forms the foundation for effective support.
Question 2 of 9
Which maternal condition always necessitates delivery by cesarean birth?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Total placenta previa. In this condition, the placenta completely covers the cervix, posing a risk of severe bleeding during vaginal delivery. Cesarean birth is necessary to avoid potential life-threatening complications for both the mother and the baby. Partial abruptio placentae (choice A) involves premature separation of the placenta, but it doesn't always require a cesarean birth. Ectopic pregnancy (choice C) occurs when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, typically requiring surgical intervention but not always a cesarean birth. Eclampsia (choice D) is a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and seizures, but it doesn't always necessitate cesarean birth unless there are other complications that require it.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is preparing to lavage a patient in theemergency department for an overdose. Which tube should the nurse obtain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ewald tube. This tube is used for gastric lavage due to its large diameter and open end which allows for effective suction of gastric contents. The Ewald tube is specifically designed for gastric lavage and is ideal for removing toxins from the stomach. Summary of why the other choices are incorrect: B: Dobhoff tube is a small-bore feeding tube, not suitable for gastric lavage. C: Miller-Abbott tube is used for intestinal decompression, not gastric lavage. D: Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is used for esophageal varices, not gastric lavage.
Question 4 of 9
A patients decline in respiratory and renal function has been attributed to Goodpasture syndrome, which is a type II hypersensitivity reaction. What pathologic process underlies the patients health problem?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because in Goodpasture syndrome, the patient's immune system mistakenly targets normal constituents of the body, specifically the basement membrane of the kidneys and lungs. This autoimmune response leads to inflammation and damage in these organs, resulting in respiratory and renal dysfunction. Choice A is incorrect as immune complexes are not the primary mechanism in Goodpasture syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to T cell-mediated immune responses, which are not the main drivers in this condition. Choice D is incorrect as histamine release and cell lysis are not the main processes involved in Goodpasture syndrome.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is teaching a patient preventative measures regarding vaginal infections. The nurse should include which of the following as an important risk factor?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Frequent douching. Douching disrupts the natural balance of vaginal flora, making the environment more susceptible to infections. High estrogen levels (A) can actually protect against vaginal infections. Late menarche (B) and nonpregnant state (C) are not direct risk factors for vaginal infections. In summary, frequent douching is the most significant risk factor as it disrupts the vaginal microbiome.
Question 6 of 9
The organization of a patients care on the palliative care unit is based on interdisciplinary collaboration. How does interdisciplinary collaboration differ from multidisciplinary practice?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Interdisciplinary collaboration involves clinicians from different backgrounds integrating their separate plans of care, ensuring a holistic approach to patient care. This fosters a comprehensive understanding of the patient's needs and individualized care. In contrast, multidisciplinary practice involves clinicians working independently without integrating their plans, potentially leading to fragmented care. Choice A is incorrect as interdisciplinary collaboration does have a team leader to coordinate and facilitate communication among team members. Choice C is incorrect because while communication and cooperation are essential in interdisciplinary collaboration, the key distinction is the integration of different perspectives and plans of care. Choice D is incorrect as interdisciplinary collaboration goes beyond just medical expertise and patient preference, involving professionals from various disciplines working together to address all aspects of patient care.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is teaching a health class about theChooseMyPlateprogram. Which guidelines will thenurse include in the teaching session?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, balancing calories. This is because the ChooseMyPlate program emphasizes the importance of maintaining a balance between the calories consumed and calories expended for overall health and weight management. By balancing calories, individuals can ensure they are meeting their nutritional needs without overeating or consuming excess calories. A: Balancing sodium and potassium is important for managing blood pressure, but this is not a specific guideline of the ChooseMyPlate program. B: Decreasing water consumption is not a guideline of the ChooseMyPlate program. Adequate hydration is essential for overall health. C: Increasing portion size is not recommended in the ChooseMyPlate program. It emphasizes portion control and eating appropriate serving sizes of different food groups.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is performing an initial assessment of an older adult resident who has just relocated to the long-term care facility. During the nurses interview with the patient, she admits that she drinks around 20 ounces of vodka every evening. What types of cancer does this put her at risk for? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Esophageal cancer. Alcohol consumption is a known risk factor for developing esophageal cancer. Ethanol, a component of alcohol, can damage the cells lining the esophagus and lead to the development of cancer over time. Incorrect choices: A: Malignant melanoma - Alcohol consumption is not directly linked to the development of malignant melanoma, a type of skin cancer. B: Brain cancer - There is no strong evidence linking alcohol consumption to an increased risk of brain cancer. C: Breast cancer - While excessive alcohol consumption is a risk factor for breast cancer, the primary association is with esophageal cancer in this case. E: Liver cancer - While alcohol abuse can lead to liver damage and increase the risk of liver cancer, the question specifies the types of cancer the patient is at risk for due to alcohol consumption, not the general risks associated with alcohol abuse.
Question 9 of 9
A patient comes to the ophthalmology clinic for an eye examination. The patient tells the nurse that he often sees floaters in his vision. How should the nurse best interpret this subjective assessment finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because floaters are commonly caused by age-related changes in the vitreous humor of the eye, such as the formation of tiny fibers or clumps. These floaters are typically harmless and not a cause for concern. Choice B is incorrect because glasses do not affect floaters in the eye. Choice C is incorrect because floaters are not a primary symptom of glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect because weakened ciliary muscles are not typically associated with floaters. Therefore, the most appropriate interpretation is that seeing floaters is a normal aging process of the eye.