ATI RN
Pediatric Nursing Review Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
One of the following conditions can mimic RDS both clinically and radiographically
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is C) total anomalous pulmonary venous return (TAPVR). This condition can mimic Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS) both clinically and radiographically. TAPVR is a congenital heart defect where the pulmonary veins do not connect normally to the left atrium. This results in oxygenated blood from the lungs returning to the right side of the heart instead of the left side. This can lead to severe hypoxemia and respiratory distress in newborns, mimicking the symptoms of RDS. Option A) persistent pulmonary hypertension usually presents with signs of right heart failure and cyanosis rather than mimicking RDS. Option B) meconium aspiration syndrome presents with respiratory distress due to meconium in the lungs, which is different from the pathophysiology of RDS. Option D) lobar emphysema would show radiographic findings of hyperinflation of a lobe of the lung, which is distinct from the findings in RDS or TAPVR. Educationally, understanding the differential diagnosis of conditions that mimic each other is crucial in pediatric nursing. Recognizing these similarities and differences can guide appropriate diagnostic and treatment strategies, leading to better patient outcomes. This knowledge helps nurses provide accurate assessments and interventions for infants presenting with respiratory distress, ensuring prompt and effective care.
Question 2 of 5
A search to determine the cause of jaundice should be made in all the following conditions EXCEPT
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the causes of jaundice is crucial for early detection and appropriate management. In this scenario, option C, "if serum bilirubin is >12 mg/dL in a full-term infant," is the correct answer. This is because physiological jaundice, which is common in newborns, typically presents with serum bilirubin levels below 12 mg/dL in full-term infants. Option A is incorrect because jaundice appearing in the first 24-36 hours of life could indicate pathological causes and warrants investigation. Option B is incorrect as a rapid rise in serum bilirubin levels suggests an underlying issue that needs to be addressed. Option D is also incorrect as an elevated direct bilirubin fraction suggests possible liver pathology that requires further evaluation. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of recognizing normal physiological changes in newborns versus pathological conditions. It emphasizes the need for healthcare providers to conduct thorough assessments and investigations when jaundice presents in certain contexts to ensure timely and appropriate interventions.
Question 3 of 5
Generalized edema may be seen in the neonatal period with the following conditions EXCEPT
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of pediatric nursing, understanding the causes of generalized edema in the neonatal period is crucial for providing effective care to infants. In this question, the correct answer is B) Turner syndrome. Turner syndrome is a genetic condition caused by partial or complete absence of one of the X chromosomes in females. While individuals with Turner syndrome may have various health issues, generalized edema is not a common feature of this syndrome. Therefore, B is the correct answer. A) Congenital nephrosis is a condition characterized by protein loss through the kidneys, leading to edema, making it an incorrect option in this scenario. C) Hurler syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that affects metabolism and can lead to various symptoms, including skeletal abnormalities and organ enlargement, but not necessarily generalized edema, making it an incorrect option. D) Hydrops fetalis is a serious fetal condition characterized by abnormal accumulation of fluid in two or more fetal compartments. This condition can present with marked generalized edema, making it an incorrect option in this context. Educationally, this question helps reinforce the importance of recognizing the varied presentations of different conditions in neonates. By understanding the specific features associated with each condition, nurses can provide timely and appropriate care to affected infants.
Question 4 of 5
Osteitis may be a feature of one of the following transplacental infections
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding transplacental infections is crucial as they can have significant implications for the fetus. Osteitis, inflammation of the bone, can be a feature of transplacental infections. In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Cytomegalovirus. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a common viral infection that can be transmitted from mother to fetus through the placenta. It is known to cause various congenital abnormalities, including osteitis. CMV can affect multiple organs, including bones, leading to skeletal issues in affected infants. Regarding the other options: - B) Herpes simplex virus: While herpes simplex virus can cause serious infections in newborns, it is not typically associated with osteitis. - C) Varicella-zoster virus: Varicella-zoster virus is responsible for chickenpox and shingles, but it is not commonly linked to osteitis. - D) Rubella: Rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to congenital rubella syndrome, which can involve bone abnormalities, but osteitis specifically is not a common feature. Educational context: Understanding the manifestations of transplacental infections in pediatric nursing is essential for early recognition and appropriate management. Nurses need to be aware of the different pathogens that can affect the fetus and the specific signs and symptoms associated with each infection to provide optimal care for both the mother and the newborn. Being able to differentiate between these infections based on their clinical presentations is crucial for effective nursing practice in the care of infants with congenital infections.
Question 5 of 5
The following factors suggest hemolytic disease as a cause of jaundice in the newborn EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the causes of jaundice in newborns is crucial for early identification and intervention. In this scenario, the correct answer is option D, "Significant decrease in hemoglobin," as it is not typically associated with hemolytic disease. Option A, a bilirubin rise of >0.5 mg/dL/h, is indicative of hemolytic disease as increased bilirubin production is a hallmark. Option B, reticulocytosis >5% at birth, is also linked to hemolytic disease due to increased red blood cell turnover. Option C, onset of jaundice before 24 hours of age, is another characteristic feature of hemolytic disease since it presents early. Educationally, this question helps reinforce the key clinical manifestations and diagnostic criteria of hemolytic disease in newborns. By understanding these factors, nurses can promptly identify and manage neonates at risk for severe hyperbilirubinemia and its complications. This knowledge is essential for providing safe and effective care to newborns, highlighting the importance of thorough assessment and early intervention in neonatal nursing practice.