ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
One of the dangers of treating hypernatremia is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cerebral edema. Hypernatremia is an elevated sodium level in the blood, which can lead to osmotic shifts causing water to move out of cells, including brain cells. This can result in cerebral edema, potentially leading to neurological complications. Incorrect choices: A: Red blood cell crenation - This occurs in hypertonic solutions, not hypernatremia. C: Red blood cell hydrolysis - Hypernatremia doesn't directly cause red blood cell hydrolysis. D: Renal shutdown - Hypernatremia can stress the kidneys, but it doesn't typically lead to renal shutdown.
Question 2 of 9
A client is diagnosed with megaloblastic anemia caused by vitamin B12 deficiency. The physician begins the client on cyanocobalamin (Betalin-12), 100mcg IM daily. Which substance influences Vitamin B12 absorption?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Intrinsic factor is a glycoprotein produced by the stomach that is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the ileum. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 absorption is impaired, leading to megaloblastic anemia. Histamine and hydrochloric acid are not directly involved in vitamin B12 absorption. Liver enzymes are not implicated in the absorption process. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
Question 3 of 9
When testing visual fields, the nurse is assessing which of the following parts of vision?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Peripheral vision. When testing visual fields, the nurse evaluates the ability to see objects outside the direct line of sight, which is indicative of peripheral vision. Peripheral vision helps detect objects and movement in the side vision. Distance vision (B) refers to the ability to see clearly at a distance, while near vision (C) pertains to close-up vision. Central vision (D) is essential for focusing on details and seeing straight ahead. Therefore, A is the correct choice as it specifically pertains to the assessment of visual fields.
Question 4 of 9
A 58-year-old man is diagnosed with cancer of the larynx. Which of the ff. are early symptoms of this cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dysphagia or hoarseness. In laryngeal cancer, dysphagia and hoarseness are early symptoms due to vocal cord involvement. Hoarseness results from vocal cord paralysis, while dysphagia occurs when the tumor obstructs the esophagus. Anemia and fatigue (choice A) are nonspecific symptoms seen in various conditions. A noticeable lump in the neck (choice B) typically indicates metastasis to the lymph nodes, which occurs later in laryngeal cancer. Crackles and stridor (choice C) are more associated with respiratory conditions rather than laryngeal cancer.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following is the appropriate nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, "Fluid volume deficit R/T uncontrolled vomiting." This option correctly identifies the cause of the fluid volume deficit as uncontrolled vomiting, which is a common reason for fluid loss. The nursing diagnosis should always reflect the underlying cause of the issue. A is incorrect as "furrow tongue" is not a recognized medical term related to fluid volume deficit. C is incorrect because dehydration is not typically related to subnormal body temperature unless it is severe. D is incorrect as incessant vomiting is more specific to the cause, but the term "dehydration" should be used instead of "fluid volume deficit" in this context. In summary, option B is the appropriate nursing diagnosis as it accurately links the fluid volume deficit to the cause of uncontrolled vomiting.
Question 6 of 9
Mr. Reyes has a possible skull fracture. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because signs of brain injury, such as altered level of consciousness, unequal pupil size, and clear fluid draining from the nose or ears, indicate a need for urgent medical attention. Choice B is incorrect because hemorrhaging from the oral cavity is not a common sign of a skull fracture. Choice C is incorrect as elevating the foot of the bed is not appropriate for a skull fracture but may be done for shock. Choice D is incorrect because decreased intracranial pressure and temperature are not typical symptoms of a skull fracture.
Question 7 of 9
Which laboratory study is monitored for the patient receiving heparin therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time) because it specifically measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy by assessing the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. A prolonged PTT indicates that heparin is achieving the desired anticoagulant effect. A: INR (International Normalized Ratio) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. C: PT (Prothrombin Time) is also used to monitor warfarin therapy. D: Bleeding time is not typically used to monitor heparin therapy and is more focused on platelet function rather than coagulation factors.
Question 8 of 9
Under which of the ff situations should a nurse notify the physician when caring for a client with lymphangitis? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Lymphangitis is an inflammation of lymphatic vessels. 2. If the affected area appears to enlarge, it indicates possible worsening or spreading of the infection. 3. Nurse should notify the physician for further evaluation and treatment. 4. Red streaks extending up the arm or leg (B) are common signs of lymphangitis, not necessarily requiring immediate physician notification. 5. Additional lymph nodes becoming (C) is a normal response to infection and may not warrant immediate physician notification. 6. Liver and spleen enlargement (D) are not directly related to lymphangitis and do not require immediate notification.
Question 9 of 9
. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus asks the nurse about taking an oral antidiabetic agent. The nurse explains that these medications are only effective if the client:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Oral antidiabetic agents target insulin resistance, common in type 2 diabetes. 2. Type 1 diabetes lacks insulin production, making oral agents ineffective. 3. Choice A is incorrect as insulin cannot be taken orally. 4. Choice C is incorrect as oral agents are not indicated for type 2 diabetes. 5. Choice D is incorrect as pregnancy does not affect the type of diabetes.