ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
One of the dangers of treating hypernatremia is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cerebral edema. Hypernatremia is an elevated sodium level in the blood, which can lead to osmotic shifts causing water to move out of cells, including brain cells. This can result in cerebral edema, potentially leading to neurological complications. Incorrect choices: A: Red blood cell crenation - This occurs in hypertonic solutions, not hypernatremia. C: Red blood cell hydrolysis - Hypernatremia doesn't directly cause red blood cell hydrolysis. D: Renal shutdown - Hypernatremia can stress the kidneys, but it doesn't typically lead to renal shutdown.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is conducting a nursing health history. Which component will the nurse address?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Patient expectations. During a nursing health history, it is essential for the nurse to address the patient's expectations to understand their needs, preferences, and goals for their health care. By focusing on the patient's expectations, the nurse can establish a therapeutic relationship, provide patient-centered care, and tailor the care plan accordingly. A: Nurse's concerns - Incorrect. The nursing health history should prioritize the patient's perspective and needs over the nurse's concerns. C: Current treatment orders - Incorrect. While important, this component focuses on the medical treatment plan rather than the patient's expectations. D: Nurse's goals for the patient - Incorrect. The nurse should collaborate with the patient to set goals that align with the patient's needs and preferences, not impose their own goals.
Question 3 of 9
A 23 y.o. woman is seen at an outpatient clinic for a routine Pap smear. When questioned, she states she is deciding whether to engage in sexual activity with a man she is just getting to know. She asks how she can tell if he has an STD. Which response by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: The correct answer is D because it emphasizes the importance of medical examination and diagnostic testing to determine if the man has an STD. Step 2: Visual inspection (choice B) is not reliable as some STDs may not present with visible symptoms. Step 3: Relying solely on appearance and condom use (choices A and C) does not guarantee protection against all STDs. Step 4: Choice D is the best option as it advocates for seeking professional medical advice for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
Question 4 of 9
One of the dangers of treating hypernatremia is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cerebral edema. Hypernatremia is an elevated sodium level in the blood, which can lead to osmotic shifts causing water to move out of cells, including brain cells. This can result in cerebral edema, potentially leading to neurological complications. Incorrect choices: A: Red blood cell crenation - This occurs in hypertonic solutions, not hypernatremia. C: Red blood cell hydrolysis - Hypernatremia doesn't directly cause red blood cell hydrolysis. D: Renal shutdown - Hypernatremia can stress the kidneys, but it doesn't typically lead to renal shutdown.
Question 5 of 9
When you report on duty, your team leader tells you that Mr. MartineHi accidentally received 1000 ml of fluids in 2 hours and that you are to be alert for signs of circulatory overload. Which of the following signs would not be likely to occur?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weak, slow pulse. Circulatory overload typically presents with signs of fluid volume excess, such as moist gurgling respirations, distended neck veins, dyspnea, and coughing. A weak, slow pulse is not a characteristic sign of circulatory overload, as the heart rate may actually be elevated due to the increased fluid volume. Therefore, a weak, slow pulse would not be likely to occur in this scenario.
Question 6 of 9
A client receiving ferrous sulfate (Fer-Iron) therapy to treat an iron deficiency reports taking an antacid frequently to relieve heart burn. Which nursing instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Take ferrous sulfate and the antacid at least 2 hours apart." Rationale: 1. Iron absorption is decreased in the presence of antacids due to decreased gastric acidity. 2. Antacids can bind to iron and reduce its absorption. 3. Taking them 2 hours apart allows for optimal iron absorption without interference from the antacid. 4. Taking them together (choice A) would decrease iron absorption. 5. Avoiding antacids altogether (choice C) may not be necessary if spaced apart appropriately. 6. Taking them 1 hour apart (choice D) may still lead to decreased iron absorption due to antacid interference.
Question 7 of 9
During the initial assessment, he is placed in a modified Trendelenburg position. What desired effect should the position have on the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The modified Trendelenburg position involves placing the client with their legs elevated higher than their head. This position promotes venous return to the heart, increasing preload and cardiac output, thereby leading to an increase in blood pressure. Elevating the legs helps to reduce peripheral edema and improve circulation. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B is incorrect because the Trendelenburg position does not directly affect the respiratory rate. Choice C is incorrect as the position is not intended to increase heart rate but rather improve venous return. Choice D is also incorrect as the primary goal of the Trendelenburg position is not to decrease blood loss, although it may help in some cases by improving circulation.
Question 8 of 9
A 62-year old client diagnosed with pyelonephritis and possible septicemia has had five urinary tract infections over the past 2 years. She’s fatigued from lack of sleep; urinates frequently, even during the night, and has lost weight recently. Tests reveal the following: sodium level 152mEq/L, osmolarity 340mOsm/L, glucose level 125mg/dl, and potassium level of 3.8mEq/L. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate for this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client is C: Deficient fluid volume related to osmotic diuresis induced by hypernatremia. The client's elevated sodium level of 152mEq/L indicates hypernatremia, which leads to osmotic diuresis and subsequent fluid loss. This results in deficient fluid volume, causing the client to urinate frequently and experience fatigue from lack of sleep. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Deficient fluid volume related to inability to conserve water is not the most appropriate diagnosis as the primary issue is the osmotic diuresis induced by hypernatremia, not the client's inability to conserve water. B: Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to hypermetabolic state is not the most appropriate diagnosis as the client's weight loss is likely due to fluid loss from osmotic diuresis, not a hypermetabolic state. D: Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to catab
Question 9 of 9
. A client is diagnosed with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse should anticipate which laboratory test result?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased serum sodium level. In SIADH, there is an excessive release of ADH, causing water retention and dilution of sodium in the blood. This leads to hyponatremia. B: Increased blood urea nitrogen and C: Decreased serum creatinine level are not typically associated with SIADH. D: Increased hematocrit is not a typical finding in SIADH, as it is more related to dehydration. Therefore, the most anticipated laboratory test result in a client with SIADH is a decreased serum sodium level due to dilutional hyponatremia.