ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
One of the complications of prolonged bed rest is decubitus ulcer. Which of the following can best prevent its occurrence?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Turn frequently every 2 hours. This is because changing positions regularly helps to relieve pressure on specific areas, reducing the risk of developing decubitus ulcers. Turning every 2 hours helps to maintain blood flow and prevent tissue damage. A: Massaging reddened areas with lotion or oils can actually cause further damage by increasing friction and pressure on the skin. B: While using a special water mattress can help distribute pressure more evenly, it is not as effective as regular turning to prevent decubitus ulcers. D: Keeping the skin clean and dry is important for overall skin health but alone is not sufficient to prevent decubitus ulcers. Regular repositioning is crucial in reducing pressure and avoiding tissue breakdown.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse knows that Parkinson’s disease a progressive neurologic disorder is characterized by:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Parkinson's disease is characterized by bradykinesia, tremor, and muscle rigidity. Bradykinesia refers to slowness of movement, tremor involves involuntary shaking, and muscle rigidity causes stiffness and resistance to movement. These three symptoms are commonly known as the classic triad of Parkinson's disease. Therefore, selecting "All of the above" (D) is the correct choice as it encompasses all the key features of Parkinson's disease. Choices A, B, and C individually are incorrect because they do not fully capture the comprehensive presentation of symptoms in Parkinson's disease.
Question 3 of 5
Mrs. Silang, a 52-year old female, is experiencing advanced hepatic cirrhosis now complicated by hepatic encephalopathy. She is confused, restless, and demonstrating asterixis. The nurse has formulated the nursing diagnosis: Altered thought processes related to which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: increased serum ammonia levels. In hepatic encephalopathy, the liver is unable to metabolize ammonia, leading to its accumulation in the bloodstream, causing altered thought processes. This results in confusion and asterixis. Massive ascites formation (choice A) is related to fluid accumulation in the peritoneal cavity, not directly linked to altered thought processes. Fluid volume excess (choice B) is a general fluid imbalance issue, not specific to hepatic encephalopathy. Altered clotting mechanism (choice D) is more associated with hepatic dysfunction leading to impaired clotting factors, not directly linked to altered thought processes.
Question 4 of 5
A patient is admitted with a 2-month history of fatigue, SOB, pallor, and dizziness. The patient is diagnosed with idiopathic autoimmune haemolytic anemia. On reviewing the laboratory results, the nurse notes which of the following that confirms this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: RBC fragments. In idiopathic autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the immune system attacks and destroys red blood cells, leading to hemolysis. The presence of RBC fragments in the blood smear confirms this diagnosis as it indicates mechanical damage to RBCs. Explanation: 1. RBC fragments (schistocytes) are a hallmark of hemolysis, seen in conditions like autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 2. Microcytic, hypochromic RBCs (Choice B) are typically seen in iron deficiency anemia, not autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 3. Macrocytic, normochromic RBCs (Choice C) are characteristic of megaloblastic anemias like vitamin B12 deficiency, not autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 4. Hemoglobin molecules (Choice D) are not directly indicative of autoimmune hemolytic anemia; the presence of free hemoglobin in the blood would suggest intrav
Question 5 of 5
After receiving a dose of penicillin, a client develops dyspnea and hypotension. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing anaphylactic shock. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Administering epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock to reverse hypotension and bronchoconstriction. Intubation may be necessary if airway compromise occurs despite epinephrine. Paging an anesthesiologist (A) is not the priority. Administering penicillin antidote (C) is not indicated in anaphylaxis. Inserting a urinary catheter and infusing IV fluids (D) may be necessary later but not the priority in managing anaphylactic shock.
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