Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions

Question 1 of 5

One evening, Jose complained of dyspnea despite continuous oxygen therapy. What should be the nurse's INITIAL intervention?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: If Jose is complaining of dyspnea despite continuous oxygen therapy, the nurse's initial intervention should be to assess the patency of the tubing delivering the oxygen. A blockage in the tubing could restrict the flow of oxygen to the patient, leading to inadequate oxygen delivery and worsening dyspnea. By ensuring the tubing is clear and functioning properly, the nurse can address a potential issue with oxygen delivery before considering other interventions like giving PRN medication or involving the physician. Re-assessing the patient would also be important after ensuring the tubing's patency to evaluate the effectiveness of the intervention.

Question 2 of 5

A pregnant woman presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding at 34 weeks gestation. On examination, the cervix is found to be closed. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to painless vaginal bleeding during pregnancy. In the scenario described, the painless, bright red vaginal bleeding at 34 weeks gestation with a closed cervix is classic for placenta previa. This condition is more common in the third trimester and can be diagnosed through ultrasound. It is important to manage placenta previa carefully to prevent complications such as severe bleeding, preterm birth, and maternal/fetal distress.

Question 3 of 5

It is 10 o'clock of your watch. The client asks, "What time is it?" The nurse's appropriate response is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's appropriate response is to provide the requested information clearly and directly. In this case, the client asked for the time, so the best response is to say "It is 10 o'clock" to answer their question promptly. Options A, C, and D do not address the client's question and may be perceived as dismissive or unhelpful.

Question 4 of 5

While performing the assessment your are guided that the organs found in the epigastrium include which of the following?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The epigastrium is the upper middle region of the abdomen, lying above the umbilical region and between the hypochondriac regions. It contains several organs including the duodenum, pancreas, portion of the liver, and the pyloric end of the stomach. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine, the pancreas is a crucial organ for digestion and hormone regulation, the liver aids in digestion and detoxification, and the pyloric end of the stomach connects the stomach to the small intestine for further digestion and absorption of nutrients. These organs are typically assessed and examined when focusing on the epigastrium during a physical examination.

Question 5 of 5

A patient presents with a yellowish-white spot on the cornea, surrounded by a ring of inflammation. Slit-lamp examination reveals branching, filamentous opacities extending from the corneal lesion. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The described presentation of a yellowish-white spot on the cornea with branching, filamentous opacities is characteristic of fungal keratitis. Fungal keratitis is typically associated with agricultural injuries, trauma involving plant material, or contact lens wear in agricultural environments. Fungal keratitis can be serious and may require intensive antifungal treatment to prevent vision loss. Prompt diagnosis and initiation of appropriate antifungal therapy are essential in managing fungal keratitis.

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