ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
One aspect of the nurses comprehensive assessment when caring for the terminally ill is the assessment of hope. The nurse is assessing a patient with liver failure for the presence of hope. What would the nurse identify as a hope-fostering category?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Uplifting memories. When assessing hope in a terminally ill patient, identifying uplifting memories can foster hope by providing emotional support, positive experiences, and a sense of purpose. Memories can inspire optimism and comfort in difficult times. B: Ignoring negative outcomes is incorrect as it does not address the patient's emotional needs or promote coping strategies. C: Envisioning one specific outcome is incorrect because hope should encompass a range of possibilities, not just one specific outcome. D: Avoiding an actual or potential threat is incorrect as it focuses on avoidance rather than on promoting positive emotions and psychological well-being.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is watching a nursing assistive personnel(NAP) perform a postvoid bladder scan on a female with a previous hysterectomy. Which action will require the nurse to follow up?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because setting the scanner to female is incorrect for a patient who has had a hysterectomy as they do not have a uterus. This could lead to inaccurate results. Palpating the symphysis pubis (A) ensures proper positioning, wiping the scanner head with alcohol (B) maintains infection control, and applying gel (C) facilitates sound wave transmission.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with ovarian cancer is admitted to the hospital for surgery and the nurse is completing the patients health history. What clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to assess?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased abdominal girth. In ovarian cancer, a common clinical manifestation is the accumulation of fluid in the abdomen, leading to increased abdominal girth. This is known as ascites. The presence of ascites can be observed through physical examination and abdominal imaging. A: Fish-like vaginal odor is not typically associated with ovarian cancer. It may be a symptom of other gynecological conditions. C: Fever and chills are not specific to ovarian cancer and can be seen in various infectious or inflammatory conditions. D: Lower abdominal pelvic pain is a common symptom in many gynecological conditions but is not a specific manifestation of ovarian cancer.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is discussing the results of a patients diagnostic testing with the nurse practitioner. What Weber test result would indicate the presence of a sensorineural loss?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because in sensorineural hearing loss, the sound is heard better in the ear with poorer hearing due to damage to the inner ear or auditory nerve. This is because the brain perceives the sound as louder in the affected ear to compensate for the hearing loss. Choice A is incorrect as it describes the result for conductive hearing loss. Choice B is incorrect as it indicates normal hearing. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the result for a lateralizing conductive hearing loss.
Question 5 of 9
A patient is 24 hours postoperative following prostatectomy and the urologist has ordered continuous bladder irrigation. What color of output should the nurse expect to find in the drainage bag?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red wine colored. Following a prostatectomy, continuous bladder irrigation is commonly used to prevent blood clots and ensure urine drainage. The output is expected to be red wine colored, indicating the presence of blood in the urine due to surgical trauma. Tea-colored (choice B) or amber (choice C) are not specific enough and do not accurately reflect the expected bloody output. Light pink (choice D) may suggest a lower level of bleeding compared to red wine color, but it is not the most accurate description for post-prostatectomy drainage.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is using different toileting schedules.Which principles will the nurse keep in mind when planning care? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because habit training involves keeping a bladder diary to identify patterns and develop a toileting schedule. This helps in promoting regular voiding habits. B is incorrect because timed voiding isn't solely based on the patient's urge to void, but rather on a predetermined schedule. C is incorrect as prompted voiding involves reminding patients to use the restroom at regular intervals, not just asking if they are wet or dry. D is incorrect because elevating feet in patients with edema may help reduce swelling but has no direct impact on nighttime voiding.
Question 7 of 9
A patient has experienced occasional urinary incontinence in the weeks since his prostatectomy. In order to promote continence, the nurse should encourage which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pelvic floor exercises. Pelvic floor exercises help strengthen the muscles that control urination, promoting continence. These exercises can improve bladder control and reduce urinary incontinence post-prostatectomy. Intermittent urinary catheterization (B) may lead to increased risk of infection. Reduced physical activity (C) can weaken pelvic floor muscles, worsening incontinence. Active range of motion exercises (D) do not directly address urinary incontinence.
Question 8 of 9
An older adult has encouraged her husband to visit their primary care provider, stating that she is concerned that he may have Parkinsons disease. Which of the wifes descriptions of her husbands health and function is most suggestive of Parkinsons disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because one of the hallmark symptoms of Parkinson's disease is bradykinesia, which is characterized by slowness of movement. This symptom commonly presents as a person moving far more slowly than usual. Option B is more indicative of arthritis or another musculoskeletal condition. Option C suggests possible cognitive decline or dementia, not specific to Parkinson's disease. Option D could indicate a different medical condition causing weight loss despite a good appetite. Therefore, A is the most suggestive of Parkinson's disease based on the symptom of bradykinesia.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with a family history of allergies has suffered an allergic response based on a genetic predisposition. This atopic response is usually mediated by what immunoglobulin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Immunoglobulin E. The atopic response in allergies is mainly mediated by IgE antibodies. IgE binds to allergens and triggers the release of histamine and other chemicals that cause allergic symptoms. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas, IgM is involved in early immune responses, and IgG is important for long-term immunity. IgE is specifically associated with allergic reactions due to its role in sensitizing mast cells and basophils to allergens.