ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
One aspect of the nurses comprehensive assessment when caring for the terminally ill is the assessment of hope. The nurse is assessing a patient with liver failure for the presence of hope. What would the nurse identify as a hope-fostering category?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Uplifting memories. When assessing hope in a terminally ill patient, identifying uplifting memories can foster hope by providing emotional support, positive experiences, and a sense of purpose. Memories can inspire optimism and comfort in difficult times. B: Ignoring negative outcomes is incorrect as it does not address the patient's emotional needs or promote coping strategies. C: Envisioning one specific outcome is incorrect because hope should encompass a range of possibilities, not just one specific outcome. D: Avoiding an actual or potential threat is incorrect as it focuses on avoidance rather than on promoting positive emotions and psychological well-being.
Question 2 of 9
A public health nurse is participating in a campaign aimed at preventing cervical cancer. What strategies should the nurse include is this campaign? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Promotion of HPV immunization. This strategy is effective in preventing cervical cancer by targeting the main cause, which is Human Papillomavirus (HPV). The HPV vaccine can protect against the most common types of HPV that cause cervical cancer. Encouraging young women to delay first intercourse (B) does not directly prevent HPV transmission, as the virus can be transmitted through other means. Smoking cessation (C) is important for overall health but does not specifically prevent cervical cancer. Vitamin D and calcium supplementation (D) may have general health benefits but do not directly prevent cervical cancer. Using safer sex practices (E) can reduce the risk of HPV transmission but does not provide the same level of protection as HPV immunization.
Question 3 of 9
A patient was tested for HIV using enzyme immunoassay (EIA) and results were positive. The nurse should expect the primary care provider to order what test to confirm the EIA test results?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Western blot test. The Western blot test is considered the gold standard for confirming HIV diagnosis after a positive EIA result. It detects specific antibodies to HIV proteins, providing a more accurate confirmation. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Another EIA test would yield the same result as the initial EIA test. B: Viral load test measures the amount of virus in the blood and is not used to confirm HIV diagnosis. D: CD4/CD8 ratio is used to monitor immune status but not to confirm HIV diagnosis.
Question 4 of 9
A patient is to undergo an ultrasound-guided core biopsy. The patient tells the nurse that a friend of hers had a stereotactic core biopsy. She wants to understand the differences between the two procedures.What would be the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because an ultrasound-guided core biopsy is indeed faster, less expensive, and does not use radiation. - "Faster": Ultrasound-guided biopsies are typically quicker compared to stereotactic biopsies, as they are performed in real-time using ultrasound imaging. - "Less expensive": Ultrasound-guided biopsies are generally more cost-effective than stereotactic biopsies due to the equipment and resources required. - "Does not use radiation": Unlike stereotactic biopsies which involve the use of X-rays for guidance, ultrasound-guided biopsies do not expose the patient to radiation, making them safer in that aspect. The other choices are incorrect because they either inaccurately state that ultrasound-guided biopsies use radiation (C), take more time (D), or imply a slight increase in cost without highlighting the key advantages of speed and lack of radiation (B).
Question 5 of 9
A patient has been diagnosed with endometriosis. When planning this patients care, the nurse should prioritize what nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pain related to misplaced endometrial tissue. This nursing diagnosis should be prioritized because endometriosis commonly presents with severe pelvic pain. Managing pain is crucial for the patient's comfort and quality of life. Anxiety (choice A) is not the priority as pain management takes precedence. Ineffective tissue perfusion (choice C) is not a priority unless the patient is actively hemorrhaging. Excess fluid volume (choice D) is not typically associated with endometriosis. Prioritizing pain management will address the immediate and most distressing symptom for the patient.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is planning the care of a patient who has a diagnosis of atopic dermatitis, which commonly affects both of her hands and forearms. What risk nursing diagnosis should the nurse include in the patients care plan?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Risk for Self-Care Deficit Related to Skin Lesions. Patients with atopic dermatitis may experience difficulty performing self-care tasks due to pain, itching, and limitations in hand mobility caused by skin lesions. This diagnosis addresses the potential challenges the patient may face in maintaining personal hygiene and managing their skin condition. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: A: Risk for Disturbed Body Image Related to Skin Lesions - While atopic dermatitis may impact body image, the priority in this case is the patient's ability to perform self-care. B: Risk for Disuse Syndrome Related to Dermatitis - Disuse syndrome is not typically associated with atopic dermatitis. C: Risk for Ineffective Role Performance Related to Dermatitis - This diagnosis focuses on the patient's ability to fulfill their roles, which may not be directly impacted by atopic dermatitis.
Question 7 of 9
In providing diet education for a patient on a low-fat diet, which information is important for the nurse to share?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because saturated fats are primarily found in animal sources such as red meat, poultry, and dairy products. It is important to limit the intake of saturated fats on a low-fat diet to reduce the risk of heart disease and other health issues. A: Polyunsaturated fats are actually considered healthy fats and should not be restricted to less than 7% of total calories. B: Transfat is a type of unhealthy fat that should be avoided altogether, not just limited to 7% of total calories. C: Unsaturated fats are actually found mostly in plant-based sources like nuts, seeds, and avocados, not animal sources. In summary, choice D is correct because it provides accurate information about the source of saturated fats in animal products, while the other choices provide incorrect or misleading information about different types of fats.
Question 8 of 9
A patient taking magnesium sulfate has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. In addition to discontinuing the medication, which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer calcium gluconate. Magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression, leading to a low respiratory rate. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity, as it antagonizes the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular junction. Administering calcium gluconate helps reverse the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Increasing IV fluids (Choice A) is not directly related to treating respiratory depression. Vigorously stimulating the patient (Choice C) can exacerbate respiratory depression. Instructing the patient to take deep breaths (Choice D) may not be effective in addressing the underlying cause of respiratory depression due to magnesium sulfate toxicity.
Question 9 of 9
An oncology nurse is contributing to the care of a patient who has failed to respond appreciably to conventional cancer treatments. As a result, the care team is considering the possible use of biologic response modifiers (BRFs). The nurse should know that these achieve a therapeutic effect by what means?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Focusing the patient's immune system exclusively on the tumor. Biologic response modifiers (BRMs) work by enhancing the body's natural defenses to target and attack cancer cells specifically. This approach helps the immune system to recognize and destroy cancer cells while minimizing harm to normal cells. A: Promoting the synthesis and release of leukocytes - This is not the primary mechanism of action for BRMs. While leukocytes play a role in the immune response, BRMs target the immune system's response to tumors. C: Potentiating the effects of chemotherapeutic agents and radiation therapy - While some BRMs may be used in combination with these treatments, their primary mode of action is not to enhance the effects of chemotherapy or radiation therapy. D: Altering the immunologic relationship between the tumor and the patient - This choice is too broad and vague. BRMs specifically aim to direct the immune response towards targeting the tumor cells, rather than altering the overall immunologic relationship