On visual confrontation testing, a stroke patient is unable to see your fingers on his entire right side with either eye covered. Which of the following terms would describe this finding?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Right homonymous hemianopsia. This term describes the loss of vision on the same side in both eyes. In this case, the patient is unable to see on the entire right side with either eye covered, indicating a lesion in the left optic tract or radiation. A: Bitemporal hemianopsia is a loss of vision from the outer half of both visual fields, typically due to a pituitary tumor compressing the optic chiasm. B: Right temporal hemianopsia refers to a loss of vision on the right side of both visual fields, which is not consistent with the patient's presentation. D: Binasal hemianopsia is characterized by a loss of vision on the inner half of both visual fields, usually seen in pituitary tumors involving the optic chiasm.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the statement accurately describes the function of a stethoscope. A stethoscope doesn't magnify sound but rather blocks out extraneous room noise to allow for clear auscultation. This is essential for accurate assessment. Choice A is incorrect as the slope of the earpieces should point towards the nose, not the occiput. Choice C is incorrect because fit and quality are crucial for accurate auscultation, not just the ability to magnify sound. Choice D is incorrect as there isn't an ideal tubing length specified for all stethoscopes, and the focus should be on optimal sound transmission rather than dampening sound.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Firmness over the left upper quadrant. This finding is abnormal as the left upper quadrant should normally be soft on palpation. Firmness could indicate an underlying issue such as organ enlargement or inflammation. A: Soft, non-tender abdomen is normal. C: Generalized tympany on percussion is also normal as it indicates air-filled intestines. D: No palpable masses is a normal finding as well. Therefore, B is the correct answer as it deviates from the expected normal abdominal palpation findings.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Crackles in the lungs. Left-sided heart failure typically results in fluid buildup in the lungs, leading to crackles upon auscultation. This occurs due to the impaired ability of the left side of the heart to adequately pump blood, causing fluid to leak into the lungs. Peripheral edema (A) is more indicative of right-sided heart failure, where blood backs up in the systemic circulation. Jugular vein distension (B) is a sign of increased central venous pressure, often seen in right-sided heart failure. Ascites (D) is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity and is more commonly associated with liver or kidney disease rather than heart failure.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Transfer to radiology for a CT scan. This is the first collaborative intervention to implement because the patient's history of falling down the stairs a month ago with subsequent absence of visible injuries raises concern for possible head trauma. The acute lethargy, confusion, and incontinence could be indicative of a traumatic brain injury or intracranial bleeding. A CT scan is crucial to assess for any structural brain abnormalities that may require immediate intervention. Choice A: Placing on the hospital alcohol withdrawal protocol is not the first priority as the patient's symptoms are more suggestive of a potential head injury rather than alcohol withdrawal. Choice C: Inserting a retention catheter to straight drainage may be necessary for managing incontinence, but it does not address the primary concern of assessing for potential head trauma. Choice D: Giving phenytoin (Dilantin) 100 mg PO is not appropriate as the patient's symptoms are not necessarily indicative of seizures and administering ant