On the base of the clinical data a child was diagnosed with atypical pneumonia resistant to the effects of beta-lactam antibiotics. The patient's sputum was cultured and incubated in a special medium, which resulted in growth of microorganisms forming microscopic colonies with a dense center (looking like fried eggs). What microorganism caused the disease?

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Microbiology Chapter 12 Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

On the base of the clinical data a child was diagnosed with atypical pneumonia resistant to the effects of beta-lactam antibiotics. The patient's sputum was cultured and incubated in a special medium, which resulted in growth of microorganisms forming microscopic colonies with a dense center (looking like fried eggs). What microorganism caused the disease?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mycoplasma pneumoniae. Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a common cause of atypical pneumonia and is known to be resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics. The description of microorganisms forming microscopic colonies with a dense center resembling fried eggs is characteristic of Mycoplasma pneumoniae colonies seen on special media. Summary of other choices: B: Klebsiella pneumoniae is not typically associated with atypical pneumonia and does not exhibit the described colony morphology. C: Streptococcus pneumoniae is not resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics and does not produce colonies with the described appearance. D: Legionella pneumophila is associated with Legionnaires' disease, not atypical pneumonia, and does not form colonies resembling fried eggs.

Question 2 of 9

What measures should be applied to prevent hospital-acquired infections:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all measures mentioned are important in preventing hospital-acquired infections. Isolating the source helps prevent the spread of infections. Isolating at-risk patients reduces their exposure. Increasing patient resistance to infections through proper hygiene and immunizations minimizes susceptibility. Each measure plays a crucial role in infection prevention, making all options correct.

Question 3 of 9

Bacteria that prefer high levels of salt in their growing environment are referred to as:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: halophiles. Halophiles are bacteria that thrive in high salt environments. They have adapted to survive and grow in areas with high salt concentrations. This preference for high salt levels is what distinguishes halophiles from other types of bacteria. A: Calciphiles are bacteria that prefer high levels of calcium. C: Osmophiles are bacteria that thrive in environments with high sugar concentrations. D: Mesophiles are bacteria that prefer moderate temperature ranges for growth. In summary, the correct term for bacteria that prefer high levels of salt in their growing environment is halophiles, making choices A, C, and D incorrect in this context.

Question 4 of 9

The bacterial component targeted by penicillin is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cell wall. Penicillin targets the cell wall of bacteria by inhibiting the formation of peptidoglycan, a crucial component of the cell wall. This weakens the cell wall, leading to bacterial cell lysis. Choice A (DNA) is incorrect because penicillin does not directly target DNA. Choice B (Plasma membrane) is incorrect as penicillin primarily affects the cell wall, not the plasma membrane. Choice D (Ribosomes) is incorrect because penicillin does not target bacterial ribosomes, which are involved in protein synthesis.

Question 5 of 9

The primary stage of syphilis is usually manifested as:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Non-tender chancre (ulcus durum). In the primary stage of syphilis, an individual typically develops a painless ulcer known as a chancre at the site of infection. This ulcer is usually firm, round, and clean with well-defined borders. It is important to note that it is non-tender, which distinguishes it from other skin conditions. This characteristic helps healthcare providers differentiate syphilis from other sexually transmitted infections. Explanation for other choices: A: Diffuse maculopapular rash - This is more commonly associated with secondary syphilis. B: Purulent exudation from the urethra - This is not a typical presentation of primary syphilis. C: Syphilitic granulomas (gummas) - Gummas typically develop in the tertiary stage of syphilis, not in the primary stage.

Question 6 of 9

A 40-year-old female farmworker has been diagnosed with brucellosis and administered causal chemotherapy. What group of drugs will be used for this purpose?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antibiotic. Brucellosis is a bacterial infection, and antibiotics are the primary treatment to target and eliminate the bacteria causing the disease. Antibiotics such as doxycycline and rifampin are commonly used for brucellosis treatment. Donor immunoglobulin (B) is not used to treat brucellosis as it is not caused by a deficiency in antibodies. Inactivated therapeutic vaccine (C) is used for prevention, not for treating active infections. Antitoxic serum (D) is used to neutralize toxins produced by bacteria, not to directly kill the bacteria themselves in cases like brucellosis.

Question 7 of 9

A 10-year-old child had the mantoux tuberculin test administered. 48 hours later a papule up to 8 mm in diameter appeared on the site of the injection. What type of hypersensitivity reaction developed after the tuberculin injection?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type IV hypersensitivity reaction. This type of reaction is characterized by a delayed response involving T cells. In this case, the appearance of a papule after 48 hours indicates a delayed hypersensitivity reaction, which is typical of a Type IV reaction. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Arthus phenomenon is a localized immune complex-mediated reaction, not seen in tuberculin tests. C: Seroreaction typically involves antibodies reacting with soluble antigens, not seen in this scenario. D: Type II hypersensitivity reactions involve antibodies targeting specific cells or tissues, which is not the mechanism at play in this case.

Question 8 of 9

The basic requirements of PCR reaction include:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the options are essential for a PCR reaction. A: DNA segment is required as the template for amplification. B: Two oligonucleotide primers are needed to initiate DNA replication. C: Heat stable DNA polymerase (not just heat stable DNA) is crucial for withstanding the high temperatures during PCR. In summary, without any of these components, the PCR reaction cannot proceed effectively.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following lack nucleic acids?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prions. Prions are infectious proteins that lack nucleic acids, such as DNA or RNA, which are essential components of all other living organisms, including Archaea, Bacteria, and Viruses. Prions are unique in their ability to cause protein misfolding and aggregation in the brain, leading to various neurodegenerative diseases. The other choices (A: Archaea, B: Viruses, D: Bacteria) all contain nucleic acids in the form of DNA or RNA, making them distinct from prions. Therefore, C is the correct answer in this case.

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