ATI RN
Mastering Microbiology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
On the 5th day after a surgery for colon injury a patient complains of bursting pain in the postoperative wound, weakness, drowsiness, headache, fever up to 40oC. Objectively: the skin around the wound is swollen, there is gas crepitation. The wound discharges are scarce foul-smelling, of dark-gray color. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anaerobic clostridial wound infection. The symptoms and signs described (bursting pain, weakness, drowsiness, fever, swollen skin, gas crepitation, foul-smelling dark-gray discharge) are classic for gas gangrene, caused by Clostridium perfringens. Gas gangrene is an anaerobic infection that thrives in devitalized tissue, such as postoperative wounds. The gas crepitation is due to gas production by the bacteria. Abscess (B) typically presents with localized swelling and fluctuance, not gas crepitation. Postoperative wound infection (C) may present with redness, warmth, and increased wound discharge but not the specific features mentioned. Erysipelas (D) is a superficial bacterial skin infection, typically caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, presenting with well-defined raised borders and redness.
Question 2 of 5
A 40-year-old patient presents with abdominal pain, frequent loose stools with mucus and blood. Stool analysis revealed vegetative forms of some protozoa sized 30-40 microns, with short pseudopodia, containing large amounts of phagocytosed erythrocytes. What protozoan disease does the patient have?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Amebiasis. The patient's symptoms of abdominal pain, loose stools with mucus and blood, along with the presence of protozoa containing phagocytosed erythrocytes in stool analysis are indicative of Entamoeba histolytica infection. The size (30-40 microns) and pseudopodia characteristics match E. histolytica. Amebiasis commonly presents with dysentery, while Leishmaniasis (B) typically causes skin ulcers. Trichomoniasis (C) is a sexually transmitted infection, not associated with the described symptoms. Giardiasis (D) is characterized by foul-smelling diarrhea and steatorrhea, not bloody diarrhea as seen in this case.
Question 3 of 5
Slime, blood and protozoa 30-200 microns of length have been revealed in a man's feces. The body is covered with cilias and has correct oval form with a little bit narrowed forward and wide round shaped back end. On the forward end a mouth is visible. In cytoplasm there are two nucleuses and two short vacuoles. For whom are the described attributes typical?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: The described attributes match those of Balantidium. The presence of cilia, oval shape with a narrowed front and wide back end, visible mouth, two nucleuses, and short vacuoles are all characteristic features of Balantidium. Balantidium is a ciliated protozoan parasite commonly found in the human intestine. The other choices can be eliminated based on specific characteristics: Lamblia lacks cilia and has a different shape, Dysenteric amoeba typically has a single nucleus, and Trichomonas does not have cilia or multiple nuclei. Therefore, based on the specific attributes described, the correct answer is Balantidium (Choice A).
Question 4 of 5
A 34-year-old male visited Tajikistan. After return, he complains of fever up to 40oC which occurs every second day and is accompanied by chills, sweating. Hepatosplenomegaly is present. Blood test results: RBC- 3x1012/l, b- 80 g/l, WBC- 4x109/l, eosinophils - 1%, stab neutrophils - 5%, segmented neutrophils - 60%, lymphocytes - 24%, monocytes - 10%, ESR - 25 mm/h. What is the provisional diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malaria. The patient's travel history to an endemic area like Tajikistan, along with symptoms of fever with chills, sweating, and hepatosplenomegaly, are classic for malaria. The blood test results show anemia (low RBC and hemoglobin levels), which can occur in malaria due to hemolysis. The presence of eosinophils and lymphocytes are not typical for malaria, but the overall clinical picture fits. Infectious mononucleosis (choice B) typically presents with sore throat, lymphadenopathy, and atypical lymphocytosis, which are not seen in this case. Sepsis (choice C) is characterized by systemic inflammatory response syndrome and organ dysfunction due to infection, which does not align with the symptoms and findings in the case. Typhoid fever (choice D) usually presents with gradual onset of sustained fever, abdominal pain, headache, and constipation, which are not present in this patient
Question 5 of 5
After the second abortion a 23 year old woman has been diagnosed with toxoplasmosis. Which drug should be used for toxoplasmosis treatment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Co-trimoxazole. This drug combination is the first-line treatment for toxoplasmosis due to its efficacy against Toxoplasma gondii. Co-trimoxazole consists of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim, which work synergistically to inhibit bacterial and protozoal folate synthesis, effectively treating toxoplasmosis. B: Itraconazole is an antifungal medication and not effective against toxoplasmosis. C: Mebendazole is an anthelmintic drug used for treating parasitic worm infections, not toxoplasmosis. D: Azidothimidine, also known as AZT, is used for treating HIV, not toxoplasmosis.