On the 15-th day after a minor trauma of the right foot a patient felt malaise, fatigability, irritability, headache, high body temperature, feeling of compression, tension and muscular twitching of his right crus. What disease can it be?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tetanus. Tetanus is caused by the bacterium Clostridium tetani, which produces a toxin affecting the nervous system. Symptoms such as malaise, irritability, muscular twitching, and high body temperature are characteristic of tetanus due to muscle spasms and rigidity. The 15-day incubation period after trauma aligns with the typical onset of tetanus symptoms. Incorrect choices: B: Anaerobic gas gangrene - This condition usually presents with localized tissue necrosis and gas bubbles in the affected area, not systemic symptoms like malaise and headache. C: Erysipelas - This is a bacterial skin infection presenting with red, swollen patches, not the neurological symptoms seen in tetanus. D: Acute thrombophlebitis - This is a blood clot in a vein causing pain and swelling, not associated with the systemic symptoms and muscle twitching seen in tetanus.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Cholera. Cholera is caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae and primarily affects the intestines, leading to severe watery diarrhea and dehydration. It does not damage the respiratory tract. Choice A, Tularemia, affects the respiratory tract and other organs. Choice B, Plague, can cause respiratory symptoms like cough and difficulty breathing. Choice C, Anthrax, can affect the respiratory tract if inhaled in its spore form.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because hospital-acquired infections can be caused by a variety of microorganisms, including opportunistic pathogens and obligate pathogens such as bacteria or viruses. Opportunistic microorganisms take advantage of weakened immune systems in hospital patients, while obligate pathogens are capable of causing infections in healthy individuals. Therefore, all the choices are correct in this context as they represent potential etiological causes of hospital-acquired infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptomycin. Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis that can cause hearing loss as a side effect. It is known to damage the cochlear and vestibular organs in the inner ear. The other choices, B: Isoniazid, C: Rifampicin, and D: Ethionamide, are not associated with causing hearing deterioration as a side effect. Isoniazid can rarely cause peripheral neuropathy, Rifampicin can lead to hepatotoxicity, and Ethionamide may cause gastrointestinal disturbances, but none of these drugs are known to specifically cause hearing loss.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: RNA-dependent RNA polymerase. This enzyme is required for replicating viral RNA due to its ability to catalyze the synthesis of RNA using an RNA template. Reverse transcriptase (A) is used to transcribe RNA into DNA, not replicate viral RNA. DNA polymerase (B) is used for replicating DNA, not RNA. Ligase (D) is involved in joining DNA fragments, not in replicating viral RNA. Therefore, RNA-dependent RNA polymerase is the only enzyme that specifically performs the function required for replicating viral RNA.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C (Both A and B) because both Bacillus anthracis and Clostridium botulinum are capable of forming spores to survive in harsh environments. Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax and forms spores that can survive extreme conditions. Clostridium botulinum causes botulism and also forms spores for survival. Option A (Bacillus anthracis) and Option B (Clostridium botulinum) are incorrect on their own because they only represent one of the bacteria capable of forming spores. Option D (None of the above) is incorrect because it disregards the fact that both bacteria can form spores.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: prostatitis. Prostatitis is the most common bacterial infection affecting the male reproductive system. It is characterized by inflammation of the prostate gland due to bacterial infection. Symptoms include pain in the pelvic area, difficulty urinating, and fever. Cystitis (A) is a bladder infection, not specific to the male reproductive system. Mastitis (C) is inflammation of the breast tissue, which is not related to the male reproductive system. Nephritis (D) is inflammation of the kidneys, which is also not specific to the male reproductive system.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rubella virus has icosahedral type of symmetry due to its spherical shape with 20 faces. This symmetry allows for efficient packaging of genetic material and structural stability. Choice B is incorrect as rubella virus is an ssRNA virus, not ssDNA. Choice C is incorrect as rubella virus does have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. Choice D is incorrect as rubella virus does have glycoprotein spikes on its surface that aid in host cell recognition and entry.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Passive hemagglutination. In this test, red blood cells coated with Treponema antigens agglutinate in the presence of patient's serum antibodies. This indicates the presence of antibodies against Treponema, confirming the diagnosis. A: Immobilization test uses live Treponema to detect specific antibodies, but it is not commonly used for syphilis diagnosis. C: Precipitation test is not commonly used for syphilis diagnosis. D: Complement binding test is not specific for syphilis and is used more for autoimmune diseases. Therefore, passive hemagglutination is the most appropriate serological test in this case due to its specificity and relevance to the presentation of the patient.