ATI RN
Microbiology Chapter 14 Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
On examination of a patient with disease onset 5 days ago the doctor suspected tularemia and prescribed the patient tularin intracutaneously. What is the purpose of this drug administration in the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Treatment. Tularin is a specific immunizing agent used for the treatment of tularemia. The purpose of tularin administration in this patient is to provide a targeted treatment against the suspected tularemia infection. It helps the patient's immune system to recognize and fight against the bacteria causing the disease. Explanation for other choices: A: Allergy diagnostics - Tularin is not used for allergy diagnostics, as it is specifically indicated for tularemia treatment. B: Prognosis for the disease - Tularin is not used to predict the outcome of the disease but rather to treat the infection. D: Treatment evaluation - Tularin is not used for evaluating the effectiveness of treatment but for actively treating the tularemia infection.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with pulmonary tuberculosis is prescribed the most effective antituberculous antibiotic. Name this drug:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Rifampicin. Rifampicin is a first-line antibiotic for treating pulmonary tuberculosis due to its high efficacy against Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It works by inhibiting bacterial RNA synthesis. Furasolidone (A) is not commonly used for tuberculosis, Bactrim (B) is not a first-line drug for tuberculosis, and Streptocide (C) is not as effective as Rifampicin.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following diseases is generally caused by contaminated food?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Shigellosis. Shigellosis is caused by the bacteria Shigella, commonly transmitted through contaminated food and water. The bacteria can spread easily in unsanitary conditions. Mumps (A) is a viral infection spread through respiratory droplets. Legionellosis (C) is caused by the Legionella bacteria found in water sources like cooling towers. Tuberculosis (D) is a bacterial infection transmitted through the air. Therefore, the correct answer is B as it directly relates to contaminated food transmission.
Question 4 of 9
A smear of a patient's sputum suspected for tuberculosis was prepared and stained. The smear showed red bacilli against a blue background. What staining method was used?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ziehl-Neelsen staining method. This method is used to detect acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Step-by-step rationale: 1. Acid-fast bacteria resist decolorization with acid-alcohol. 2. The red bacilli seen in the smear indicate acid-fast bacteria. 3. Ziehl-Neelsen stain uses carbol fuchsin to stain acid-fast bacteria red. 4. The blue background is likely the counterstain methylene blue. Incorrect choices: B: Gram stain is for categorizing bacteria into Gram-positive or Gram-negative, not specific for acid-fast bacteria. C: Giemsa stain is used for blood films and detecting parasites, not acid-fast bacteria. D: Neisser stain is not a standard microbiological staining method.
Question 5 of 9
Agents associated with human disease but generally not a serious health risk are classified in which of the following risk groups?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: RG2. RG2 is appropriate for agents associated with human disease that pose a moderate health risk. These agents may cause disease of varying severity, but generally do not result in serious health consequences. Other choices are incorrect because: A: RG1 is for agents not associated with disease in healthy adults, C: RG3 is for agents associated with serious or lethal human disease, and D: RG4 is for agents that pose a high risk of life-threatening disease and for which there are no treatments.
Question 6 of 9
Which enzyme is one of the most important and constant criteria for pathogenicity of staphylococcus aureus?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: plasma coagulase. This enzyme is essential for the pathogenicity of Staphylococcus aureus as it can convert fibrinogen to fibrin, forming a protective barrier around the bacteria. This helps the bacteria evade the host's immune system. Beta lactamase (A) is not directly related to pathogenicity but rather resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics. Catalase (C) is produced by many bacteria, including Staphylococcus aureus, but it is not a specific indicator of pathogenicity. Choice D is incorrect as plasma coagulase is indeed an important criterion for the pathogenicity of Staphylococcus aureus.
Question 7 of 9
The development of polioviruses on cell cultures is characterized by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cytopathic effect. This is because polioviruses cause visible changes in infected cells, leading to cell damage and death, known as cytopathic effect. This is a key characteristic of viral infection. Choice B (Cytotoxic effect) is incorrect as it refers to the toxicity of a substance to cells, not the specific effect of polioviruses. Choice C (Cytolytic effect) is incorrect as it specifically refers to cell lysis, which is not the primary mechanism of poliovirus infection. Choice D (They Don't Change The Cell Cultures) is incorrect because polioviruses do indeed cause changes in cell cultures due to their cytopathic effect.
Question 8 of 9
A patient who has recently come from an endemic area presents with elevated body temperature, headache, chills, malaise, that is with the symptoms which are typical for a common cold. What laboratory tests are necessary to confirm or to refute the diagnosis of malaria?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Microscopy of blood smears. Malaria diagnosis is confirmed by identifying the Plasmodium parasite in a blood smear. This step is crucial as it directly visualizes the causative agent. The other choices are incorrect as they do not directly detect malaria parasites. B: Studying lymph node punctate is not specific for malaria. C: Urinalysis does not show malaria parasites. D: Studying cerebrospinal fluid is used to diagnose conditions affecting the brain and spinal cord, not malaria.
Question 9 of 9
An adult patient with type 2 diabetes attends the emergency room. He reported that two days ago he was accidentally injured in the left leg, but he did not seek medical care. At the time of examination, an infected wound was found, surrounded by a large area of inflammation with characteristic tissue crepitation on palpation and with foul odor. Blood (for hemoculture) and wound secretions were taken for microbiological testing. The microscopic examination reveals large Gram-positive bacteria, with centrally located spores. These bacteria were unable to grow in vitro at presence of oxygen. The most likely cause of this disease is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clostridium perfringens. In this case, the patient's presentation of infected wound with tissue crepitation, foul odor, and Gram-positive bacteria with centrally located spores that cannot grow in the presence of oxygen is indicative of gas gangrene caused by Clostridium perfringens. This anaerobic bacterium produces various toxins that lead to tissue destruction and gas production in the affected area. Clostridium tetani (choice A) causes tetanus, characterized by muscle stiffness and spasms. Clostridium botulinum (choice C) causes botulism, leading to muscle paralysis. Clostridium difficile (choice D) is associated with antibiotic-associated diarrhea. These choices are incorrect as they do not match the clinical presentation described in the question.