ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Nutritional considerations as part of the nursing care plan would include all of the following except that:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B: Calcium should be avoided Rationale: 1. Calcium is an essential mineral for bone health, especially important for individuals with limited mobility like Richard. 2. Avoiding calcium can lead to bone weakening and increase the risk of fractures. 3. Nursing care plans should include adequate calcium intake to support bone health. 4. Therefore, avoiding calcium is not a recommended nutritional consideration. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: The diet should be semisolid to facilitate the passage of food - This is important for individuals with swallowing difficulties. C: The patient should be sitting in an upright position during feeding - This aids in proper digestion and reduces the risk of aspiration. D: Thick fluids should be encouraged to provide additional calories - Thick fluids may increase the risk of aspiration in patients with neurological conditions.
Question 2 of 9
Nurse Raymond is giving instructions to an elderly client on diabetic foot care. Which teaching is not part of foot care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because washing feet in hot water can lead to burns or skin damage for those with diabetes. A: Proper footwear is essential for preventing foot injuries. B: Trimming toenails straight across helps prevent ingrown nails. D: Wearing shoes on hot surfaces prevents burns or blisters. Overall, C is incorrect due to the potential harm it can cause to diabetic feet.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse understands that which of the ff. best describes the action of propanolol (Inderal)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that acts on the heart. 2. It blocks beta-adrenergic receptors, leading to decreased heart rate and contractility. 3. Decreased heart rate and contractility result in reduced cardiac output. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is C - It decreases cardiac output. Summary: A, B, and D are incorrect because propranolol does not increase heart rate, fluid volume, or cardiac contractility.
Question 4 of 9
A client with cancer is scheduled for radiation therapy. The nurse knows that radiation at any treatment site may cause a certain adverse effect. Therefore, the nurse should prepare the client to expect:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hair loss. Radiation therapy targets fast-growing cancer cells, which can also affect healthy cells such as those in hair follicles, leading to hair loss. This adverse effect occurs commonly with radiation therapy due to its impact on rapidly dividing cells. Hair loss is a well-known side effect that clients undergoing radiation therapy are often prepared for. The other choices, B: Fatigue, C: Stomatitis, and D: Vomiting, are also potential side effects of radiation therapy, but hair loss is specifically associated with radiation treatment due to its effect on hair follicles. Fatigue is a common side effect of cancer treatment in general, stomatitis is more commonly associated with chemotherapy, and vomiting can be a side effect of radiation but is not as directly linked as hair loss.
Question 5 of 9
A patient returns from surgery ff. a TURP with a three-way Foley catheter and continuous bladder irrigation. Postoperative orders include Meperidine (Demerol) 75 mg IM q3h as needed for pain, belladonna and opium (B&O) suppository q4h as needed, and strict I&O. the patient complains of painful bladder spasms, and the nurse observes blood-tinged urine on the sheets. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to notify the physician stat (choice D). Firstly, the patient presents with painful bladder spasms and blood-tinged urine, indicating a potential complication post-TURP. This warrants immediate medical attention to assess for possible bladder injury or hemorrhage. Giving Demerol (choice A) or B&O suppository (choice B) may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue. Warming the irrigation solution (choice C) is not a priority in this situation and does not address the potential serious complications. Notifying the physician immediately allows for prompt evaluation and appropriate intervention to address the patient's condition effectively.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is completing a care plan. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nursing diagnostic statement Impaired skin integrity related to shearing forces?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because turning the patient every 2 hours helps prevent pressure ulcers caused by shearing forces. This intervention redistributes pressure, improving blood flow to the skin, thus reducing the risk of skin breakdown. Administering pain medication (A) does not directly address the skin integrity issue. Monitoring vital signs (C) is important but does not address skin integrity. Keeping bed rails up (D) may actually increase the risk of shearing forces.
Question 7 of 9
A patient is diagnosed with acute bacterial conjunctivitis. In providing patient teaching the nurse would tell the patient that this condition is more commonly known as which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pinkeye. Acute bacterial conjunctivitis is commonly referred to as "pinkeye" due to the characteristic pink or red appearance of the eye. This condition is caused by a bacterial infection of the conjunctiva, the thin membrane that covers the white part of the eye and inner eyelids. The term "glaucoma" (A) refers to a different eye condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure, while "color blindness" (B) is a genetic condition affecting color vision. "Astigmatism" (C) is a refractive error related to the shape of the cornea or lens, not an infection of the eye. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it accurately identifies the common name for acute bacterial conjunctivitis.
Question 8 of 9
A client is undergoing a diagnostic work-up for suspected testicular cancer. When obtaining the client’s history, the nurse checks for known risk factors for this type of cancer. Testicular cancer has been linked to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cryptorchidism. Cryptorchidism, or undescended testicle, is a known risk factor for testicular cancer as the undescended testicle is more prone to developing cancerous changes. This condition increases the risk of testicular cancer even if the testicle is surgically corrected later in life. Other choices like A (Testosterone therapy during childhood) and B (Sexually transmitted disease) are not linked to testicular cancer. Choice C (Early onset of puberty) is not a direct risk factor for testicular cancer.
Question 9 of 9
If a client’s parathyroid glands were accidentally removed during a procedure, which condition should the nurse prepare for?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypocalcemia. The parathyroid glands regulate calcium levels in the body. Without them, calcium levels will drop, leading to hypocalcemia. A: Hypomagnesemia is incorrect because magnesium levels are not directly regulated by the parathyroid glands. B: Hyperkalemia and C: Hypernatremia are incorrect as they are not typically associated with parathyroid gland removal. In summary, the removal of parathyroid glands would result in hypocalcemia due to the disruption of calcium regulation in the body.