Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Nursing interventions for a patient with a diagnosis of hyponatremia includes all of the following except:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because encouraging the intake of low-sodium liquids like coffee or tea can worsen hyponatremia. Hyponatremia is a condition characterized by low sodium levels in the blood, so encouraging low-sodium liquids would further dilute the sodium levels. The other choices are correct interventions for hyponatremia: A) assessing for symptoms helps in monitoring the patient's condition, C) monitoring neurological status is crucial as hyponatremia can lead to neurological complications, and D) restricting tap water intake helps in managing fluid intake and preventing further dilution of sodium levels.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse knows that a client understands a low residue diet when he selects which of the following from the menu?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rice and lean chicken. A low residue diet aims to reduce fiber intake to ease digestion. Rice and lean chicken are low in fiber and easy to digest. Pasta with vegetables (B) contains high-fiber vegetables. Strawberry pie (C) is high in fiber due to fruit and crust. Tuna casserole (D) may contain high-fiber ingredients like noodles and vegetables. Therefore, A is the best choice for a low residue diet.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the ff symptoms is associated with AIDS related distal sensory polyneuropathy (DSP)?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Abnormal sensations such as burning and numbness. In AIDS-related DSP, damage to nerves causes abnormal sensations like burning and numbness. This is due to the progressive nerve damage affecting sensory functions. Staggering gait and muscle incoordination (A) are more common in conditions affecting motor nerves. Delusional thinking (C) is not a symptom of DSP. Incontinence (D) is not typically associated with DSP but may happen in more advanced stages due to loss of sensation.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the ff is the best dietary advice to maximize the immune function in healthy people?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. A balanced and varied diet provides essential nutrients for immune function. 2. Including a wide range of foods ensures intake of vitamins, minerals, and antioxidants crucial for immune health. 3. Avoiding extremes like excessive immune-enhancing formulas or eliminating polyunsaturated fatty acids maintains balance. 4. Essential fatty acids and omega-3 fatty acids are beneficial but should be part of a well-rounded diet. 5. For clients with immune-mediated disorders, individualized dietary advice may be necessary. Summary: - A: Immune-enhancing formulas may not be necessary and could disrupt balance. - B: Avoiding all polyunsaturated fatty acids is not advisable as some are essential for health. - C: Increasing essential fatty acids is beneficial but should be part of a balanced diet.

Question 5 of 5

A client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the metabolic unit. The primary goal for this admission is education. Which of the following goals should the nurse incorporate into her teaching plan?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, as exercise and a weight reduction diet are essential components in managing type 2 diabetes. Exercise helps lower blood glucose levels and improves insulin sensitivity. Weight reduction reduces insulin resistance. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining blood glucose levels between 180-200mg/dl is too high and can lead to complications. Choice B is incorrect as complete smoking cessation is crucial for overall health and diabetes management. Choice C is incorrect because eye examinations should be done annually, not every 2 years, to monitor for diabetic retinopathy. In summary, choice D is the best option as it directly addresses the management of type 2 diabetes.

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