ATI RN
Fluid Maintenance Pediatrics Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Nursing care for a patient who is experiencing a convulsive seizure includes all of the following except:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Opening the patient's jaw and inserting a mouth gag is not part of the appropriate nursing care for a patient experiencing a convulsive seizure. Doing so can potentially harm the patient by causing injury to the teeth, jaw, or airway. It is important to protect the patient's airway during a seizure, but this can be done by positioning the patient on their side with the head flexed forward, ensuring a clear airway without the need for a mouth gag.
Question 2 of 5
What is the rationale for giving Mr. Franco frequent mouth care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Giving Mr. Franco frequent mouth care is important to remove dried blood when the tongue is bitten during a seizure. Seizures can cause involuntary biting of the tongue, leading to the accumulation of dried blood in the mouth. If this blood is not removed promptly, it can result in discomfort, infection, and potential complications. Regular oral care helps maintain oral hygiene and prevents any issues related to oral trauma during seizures, promoting overall health and well-being for the patient.
Question 3 of 5
An adult is to receive an IM injection of Morphine for post op pain. Which of the following is necessary for the nurse to assess prior to giving a narcotic analgesic?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When administering a narcotic analgesic like Morphine, assessing the client's level of alertness and respiratory rate is crucial to monitor for any adverse effects such as respiratory depression. Morphine can cause respiratory depression as one of its side effects, especially in higher doses. By assessing the client's respiratory rate and level of alertness before administering the medication, the nurse can ensure the client's safety and take appropriate action if any signs of respiratory depression occur. This assessment is essential in preventing potential complications and ensuring the client's well-being during pain management.
Question 4 of 5
The most significant form of meningitis is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bacterial meningitis is considered the most significant form of meningitis because it is a serious, life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention. Bacterial meningitis is caused by bacteria infecting the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord. It can lead to complications such as brain damage, hearing loss, and even death if not treated promptly with antibiotics. Bacterial meningitis is more severe than viral or aseptic meningitis, hence why it is considered the most significant form.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following malignancies is least likely to occur in a 10-month-old infant?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) hepatoblastoma, as this type of malignancy is least likely to occur in a 10-month-old infant. Hepatoblastoma is a rare liver cancer that typically occurs in young children, with the highest incidence in children under the age of 3. While hepatoblastoma can occur in infancy, it is less common compared to other malignancies in this age group. Option A) neuroblastoma is a common malignancy in infants and young children, arising from neural crest cells. Option B) nephroblastoma, also known as Wilms tumor, is a kidney cancer that primarily affects children. Option C) retinoblastoma is a tumor of the retina that often presents in young children. In an educational context, understanding the typical age range and common malignancies in pediatric patients is crucial for healthcare providers working in pediatrics. Recognizing the age patterns and common types of cancers in children can aid in early detection, prompt intervention, and improved outcomes. Awareness of the likelihood of specific malignancies in different age groups helps guide clinical decision-making and appropriate diagnostic workup in pediatric oncology.