ATI RN
Adult Health Med Surg Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 9
Nurses may be privy to very personal information of patients and should make every effort to make it confidential, otherwise she can be charged of ______.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nurses are bound by strict confidentiality and privacy regulations in their profession. If a nurse fails to keep a patient's personal information confidential and discloses it without authorization, they can be charged with invasion of privacy. Invasion of privacy is the wrongful intrusion into a person's private affairs without their consent, and it is a serious violation of ethical and legal standards in healthcare. Nurses must always prioritize patient confidentiality to maintain trust and uphold ethical standards in their practice.
Question 2 of 9
The APPROPRIATE nursing diagnosis to protect the patient from further injury is, which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Patients with thrombocytopenia are at risk for injury due to potential bleeding complications. Therefore, the appropriate nursing diagnosis to protect the patient from further injury in this case would be "Risk for injury related to thrombocytopenia." This nursing diagnosis allows the nurse to assess for signs of bleeding, implement interventions to prevent injury, and closely monitor the patient's platelet levels to prevent complications.
Question 3 of 9
A woman in active labor is diagnosed with a prolapsed umbilical cord. What is the priority nursing action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A prolapsed umbilical cord is a medical emergency during labor because it can cause compression of the umbilical cord, leading to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus. The priority nursing action in this situation is to prepare for an immediate cesarean section. This is necessary to quickly deliver the baby and relieve pressure on the cord, preventing potential fetal distress or death. Elevating the mother's hips may help reduce pressure on the cord temporarily, but it is not the definitive treatment for a prolapsed cord. Administering intravenous fluids rapidly may be necessary, but it is not the priority intervention when the fetus is at risk due to a prolapsed cord. Performing a vaginal examination to assess cervical dilation is contraindicated in the presence of a prolapsed umbilical cord as it can further compress the cord and worsen the situation.
Question 4 of 9
During a support group meeting, Nurse Donato, in a teasing manner, has made several provocative remarks about your appearance and behavior as a group leader. Select your MOST appropriate response.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Choosing option D, "Donato, what you are saying is inappropriate," is the most appropriate response in this situation. It directly addresses Nurse Donato's behavior without escalating the situation or being overly confrontational. By calmly pointing out that the remarks are inappropriate, you are setting a boundary and letting Nurse Donato know that such behavior is not acceptable in a professional setting. This response also signals to the rest of the group that you are aware of the inappropriate comments and are taking action to address them. It is important to address such behavior professionally and assertively to maintain a respectful and supportive environment during the support group meeting.
Question 5 of 9
A patient presents with sudden-onset unilateral facial droop, arm weakness, and slurred speech. Symptoms began approximately 30 minutes ago but have partially resolved since then. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of sudden-onset unilateral facial droop, arm weakness, and slurred speech that partially resolved within 30 minutes is more consistent with a transient ischemic attack (TIA) rather than an ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke. TIAs are caused by temporary decreases in blood flow to a specific area of the brain, leading to transient neurological deficits that typically last for less than 24 hours. In this case, the symptoms partially resolving suggest a temporary and reversible ischemic event, characteristic of a TIA. Ischemic strokes involve more prolonged or permanent impairment due to blockage of a blood vessel supplying the brain, while hemorrhagic strokes involve bleeding within the brain tissue or the surrounding membranes.
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and glycosuria. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The symptoms of polyuria (excessive urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), and polyphagia (excessive hunger) are classic signs of diabetes mellitus. In this case, the presence of hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) and glycosuria (glucose in the urine) further support the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Insulin deficiency or resistance in diabetes leads to impaired glucose utilization and excessive glucose in the bloodstream, causing the classic symptoms observed in the patient. Hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, and Cushing's syndrome do not typically present with the hallmark symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia associated with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus.
Question 7 of 9
Bulimia is best defined as a /an _____.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bulimia nervosa is best defined as a pathological disorder involving recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain, such as self-induced vomiting, excessive exercise, or misuse of laxatives. It is categorized as an eating disorder rather than a phobic disorder as it involves behaviors related to food consumption and body image, not just fears or phobias. Bulimia is not solely associated with starving oneself, as individuals with bulimia tend to consume large amounts of food during binge episodes. Therefore, the most accurate definition of bulimia is a pathological disorder of binging and vomiting.
Question 8 of 9
She was asked by the nurse supervisor about her concern and what are the considered ideal fetal positions for a healthy delivery?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The considered ideal fetal position for a healthy delivery is left transverse anterior with moderate flexion. This position allows for an easier descent through the birth canal and reduces the chances of complications during delivery. This position is optimal for a smoother and safer delivery process for both the mother and the baby.
Question 9 of 9
A patient presents with acute onset of severe headache, visual disturbances, and altered mental status. Imaging reveals a tumor compressing the optic chiasm. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pituitary adenoma is the most likely neurological condition responsible for the described symptoms of acute onset severe headache, visual disturbances, and altered mental status when a tumor is found compressing the optic chiasm. Pituitary adenomas are benign tumors arising from the pituitary gland located at the base of the brain. As the tumor grows, it can compress nearby structures such as the optic chiasm, leading to visual disturbances (due to pressure on the optic nerves), severe headache (due to increased intracranial pressure), and altered mental status (due to effects on nearby brain structures).