ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Nurse Victor reviews the medical history of patient Mila. Which of the following conditions is the MOST common cause of cardiogenic shock?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute myocardial infarction (MI) is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. During an MI, there is significant damage to the heart muscle, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and subsequent shock. This results in inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased hemoglobin level (A) may lead to anemia but is not the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. Hypotension (C) is a symptom of shock, not the cause. Coronary artery disease (D) is a risk factor for MI but not the direct cause of cardiogenic shock.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse specialist explains that chemotherapyis extremely toxic to the bone marrow and the patient may develop thrombocytopenia. What is the priority goal of the nurse? To take precautions to control _______.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Chemotherapy can lead to low platelet counts (thrombocytopenia), increasing the risk of bleeding. The priority goal of the nurse is to prevent bleeding by taking precautions such as avoiding invasive procedures, using soft toothbrushes, and monitoring for signs of bleeding. Infection (B) is important but not the priority as bleeding can be life-threatening. Hypotension (C) is not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Diarrhea (D) is a potential side effect of chemotherapy but is not the priority when considering thrombocytopenia.
Question 3 of 5
In her recommendation, Nurse Gina stated, elderly should be given independence. This means ________.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because independence for the elderly means they have the freedom to make choices and decisions about their own lives. This empowers them to live according to their preferences and values. Choice A is incorrect because it doesn't consider individual circumstances; choice B is important but doesn't capture the essence of independence; choice D is too broad and doesn't specifically address the concept of personal autonomy and agency for the elderly.
Question 4 of 5
To assist them enhance their performance at work, the nurse manager should review regularly pertaining to the staff's
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Job description is crucial for clarifying roles and responsibilities, ensuring staff understand their duties. Step 2: Regular review of job descriptions helps align staff performance with organizational goals and expectations. Step 3: It allows for identifying areas of improvement and providing necessary support and resources. Step 4: Academic performance in college, family dynamics, and number of incident reports are not directly related to work performance. Summary: Regularly reviewing staff job descriptions is essential for enhancing performance by clarifying roles, aligning expectations, and identifying areas for improvement. Other choices lack direct relevance to work performance.
Question 5 of 5
At the pre-Entry phase, which of the following is the FIRST step in the CO-PAR process
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Create a core group. In the CO-PAR process, creating a core group is the first step in the pre-Entry phase as it establishes a team of committed individuals who will lead the participatory action research. This core group will provide leadership, coordination, and represent the diversity of the community. Surveying the community (choice A) comes after forming the core group to gather information. Training the technical working group (choice B) and holding a community assembly (choice C) are subsequent steps in the process after the core group is established.