Nurse Victor assesses patient Mil. Decrease of which the following factors would help detect that the patient is at risk at developing cardiogenic shock?

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Adult Health Nursing Quizlet Final Questions

Question 1 of 9

Nurse Victor assesses patient Mil. Decrease of which the following factors would help detect that the patient is at risk at developing cardiogenic shock?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Cardiogenic shock is a life-threatening condition where the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's demands. Monitoring the patient's cardiac index, which is a measure of cardiac output adjusted for body surface area, can help detect the risk of developing cardiogenic shock. A decrease in cardiac index would indicate a decrease in the heart's ability to effectively pump blood, putting the patient at risk for cardiogenic shock. Monitoring cardiac index is essential in assessing cardiac function and guiding interventions to prevent the progression to cardiogenic shock. The other factors listed may provide important information in assessing the patient's condition, but specifically in detecting the risk of developing cardiogenic shock, monitoring the cardiac index is crucial.

Question 2 of 9

For the students better understanding about the anatomy of the breast, the CI shares ________.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: To help the students better understand the anatomy of the breast, it is crucial to provide visual aids that display both external and internal views of the breast. By sharing various pictures of the breast, students can visually learn about the structure, shape, location of different components, such as lobes, ducts, glands, and lymph nodes. Visual aids enhance the learning experience by providing a clear representation of the complex anatomical features of the breast, aiding in retention and comprehension. This approach can effectively supplement theoretical knowledge with practical visual references, facilitating a comprehensive understanding of breast anatomy.

Question 3 of 9

The BEST result of health education process is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The best result of a health education process is when it successfully influences and changes behaviors towards positive health outcomes. Providing new input, updating others, and information transfer are important components of health education, but the ultimate goal is to effect behavior change. When individuals are able to internalize and apply the knowledge gained from health education to make healthier choices in their daily lives, the process can be considered successful. Therefore, the most desirable outcome of health education is the behavioral change that leads to improved health and well-being.

Question 4 of 9

A woman in active labor is diagnosed with an obstetric emergency requiring immediate delivery. What is the priority nursing action?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the situation of an obstetric emergency requiring immediate delivery, the priority nursing action is to prepare the delivery room for the birth. This involves ensuring that all necessary supplies and equipment are readily available, the bed is adjusted to the appropriate position, and the healthcare team is prepared to assist with the birth. By expeditiously preparing the delivery room, the healthcare team can facilitate a safe and timely delivery for both the mother and the baby. Notifications to the healthcare provider, administering intravenous fluids, and continuous fetal monitoring can be done simultaneously but preparing the delivery room takes precedence to ensure a prompt response to the emergent situation.

Question 5 of 9

What symptom is an INDICATOR of cranial nerve involvement?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Difficulty of speaking and chewing is an indicator of cranial nerve involvement. Cranial nerves are responsible for controlling various functions of the head and neck, including speech and mastication. Impairment of cranial nerve function can lead to difficulty in these activities. In the context of the question, with the patient in the stroke unit, cranial nerve involvement can occur due to the stroke affecting the brain regions responsible for cranial nerve function. Loss of pain sensation, spastic paralysis of the extremities, and forgetfulness with syncope are not specific indicators of cranial nerve involvement in this scenario.

Question 6 of 9

Based on her knowledge on otitis media, Nurse Selma recalls that children are predisposed to AOM due to the following rish factors, EXCEPT ______.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Breastfeeding is actually a protective factor against acute otitis media (AOM) in children due to the antibodies and nutrients present in breast milk that help strengthen the immune system and the Eustachian tube function. Swimming, exposure to cigarette smoke, and poor hygiene are all risk factors for AOM. Swimming can introduce water into the ears, which can lead to infections. Exposure to cigarette smoke can irritate the mucous membranes in the respiratory tract and increase the risk of infections. Poor hygiene can lead to the spread of bacteria that can cause AOM.

Question 7 of 9

A patient presents with tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability. On examination, the patient demonstrates a shuffling gait, stooped posture, and a masked facies. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms described in the patient, such as tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia (slow movement), and postural instability, along with the presence of a shuffling gait, stooped posture, and masked facies, are classic features of Parkinson's disease. These motor symptoms are primarily caused by the degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra region of the brain. This results in an imbalance of neurotransmitters, particularly dopamine, leading to motor dysfunction and characteristic movement abnormalities seen in Parkinson's disease.

Question 8 of 9

The nurse specialist cites a situation. If a patient experiences episodes of severe nausea and vomiting with more than 1,000 ml. of vomitus with in a period of four hours, which of the following is the nurses MOST appropriate action?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Severe nausea and vomiting with a large volume of vomitus can indicate a serious underlying issue such as gastrointestinal obstruction or other medical emergencies. In this situation, it is crucial for the nurse to notify the physician immediately so that further assessment and appropriate management can be initiated promptly. Delay in seeking medical help can lead to complications and worsen the patient's condition. It is important to act quickly and involve the physician in situations where the patient's health may be at risk.

Question 9 of 9

In three year's tie, Nurse Florence needs to attain certain number of continuing Professional Development units to be able to renew her __________.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Nurse Florence needs to attain a certain number of continuing Professional Development units in order to renew her Professional License. Continuing Professional Development ensures that nurses stay up-to-date with the latest advancements and best practices in the field, ultimately leading to improved patient care outcomes. Renewing the Professional License is crucial for Nurse Florence to legally practice nursing and demonstrate her commitment to ongoing learning and development in the profession.

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