Nurse Sarah reads the physician's prescription to administer methylergonovine maleate (Methergin) intramuscularly after delivery. The rationale for giving this medication is which of the following?

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Question 1 of 5

Nurse Sarah reads the physician's prescription to administer methylergonovine maleate (Methergin) intramuscularly after delivery. The rationale for giving this medication is which of the following?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prevents postpartum hemorrhage. Methylergonovine maleate is a uterotonic medication used to prevent and treat postpartum hemorrhage by causing strong uterine contractions, which help to control bleeding after delivery. It is not used to reduce lochia drainage (choice A), decrease uterine contractions (choice C), or maintain normal blood pressure (choice D). By understanding the pharmacological action of methylergonovine maleate in preventing postpartum hemorrhage, we can confidently select choice B as the correct answer.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for surgical repair of myelomeningocele? To ____________.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The primary reason for surgical repair of myelomeningocele is to correct the neurologic defect. This is because myelomeningocele is a type of neural tube defect where the spinal cord and its protective covering do not close properly. Surgical repair aims to close the opening in the spinal cord to prevent further damage, improve neurological function, and reduce the risk of complications such as paralysis and infection. The other choices are incorrect as they are not the primary goal of the surgery. Preventing infection (Choice A) is important but not the primary reason. Seizure disorders (Choice C) and hydrocephalus (Choice D) may be associated complications but are not the main purpose of the surgical repair.

Question 3 of 5

In as much as Almira complained of vaginal spotting and abdominal cramps, which among the following will the nurse anticipate as the MOST likely diagnosis of the physician after a vaginal examination?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Threatened abortion. Vaginal spotting and abdominal cramps are common symptoms of a threatened abortion, which occurs when there is a risk of miscarriage but the pregnancy remains viable. This diagnosis is likely after a vaginal examination to assess the cervix and presence of fetal heartbeat. A: Eclampsia is characterized by seizures in pregnancy due to high blood pressure, not typically presenting with vaginal spotting and cramps. C: Placenta previa involves the placenta covering the cervix, leading to painless vaginal bleeding, not associated with cramps. D: Abruptio placenta is premature separation of the placenta from the uterus, manifesting as painful bleeding, not typically with vaginal spotting and cramps.

Question 4 of 5

When there is failure to supervise a child adequately, especially in children younger than 12, the kind of child abuse is, which of the following?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neglect. Failure to supervise a child adequately falls under the category of neglect, which is the failure to provide for a child's basic needs such as supervision, food, shelter, and medical care. In this scenario, the lack of proper supervision constitutes neglect as it puts the child at risk of harm or danger. Emotional abuse (A) involves harming a child's emotional well-being through actions like verbal abuse. Sexual abuse (C) involves inappropriate sexual behavior towards a child. Physical abuse (D) involves causing physical harm or injury to a child. In this case, the failure to supervise the child adequately is best categorized as neglect, making choice B the correct answer.

Question 5 of 5

A biphasic anti-ovulatory medication of combined progestin and estrogen is prescribed for a female patient. What should the nurse include when teaching about this oral contraceptive?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Report any irregular vaginal bleeding. This is important because irregular vaginal bleeding can indicate potential issues such as breakthrough bleeding or hormonal imbalances, which may require adjustments to the contraceptive regimen. Other choices are incorrect because: A) Restricting sexual activity is not necessary with this medication, C) Increasing calcium intake is not directly related to taking biphasic anti-ovulatory medication, and D) Bi-monthly Pap smears are not specifically required due to this type of contraception.

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