ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Nurse Rica, would like to start a conversation, which comunication technique she should use?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Broad opening. Nurse Rica should use this communication technique to encourage the patient to freely express themselves without leading or interrupting. This technique helps build rapport and trust, setting a positive tone for the conversation. A: Clarifying may be too direct and might make the patient feel pressured. B: Challenging can create defensiveness and hinder open communication. C: Restating may not be as effective in initiating a conversation as broad opening. In summary, broad opening allows for a more open and relaxed conversation, fostering a conducive environment for effective communication with the patient.
Question 2 of 9
What type of sampling wills Nurse Sandy adopts 11 when every third (3rd) patients with MI are selected after a random start?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Systematic sampling. Nurse Sandy is adopting systematic sampling by selecting every third patient with MI after a random start. This method ensures equal chance of selection for each patient and maintains randomness. In contrast, simple random sampling (A) entails each patient having an equal chance of being selected independently. Stratified sampling (B) divides patients into groups based on certain characteristics, which is not the case here. Cluster sampling (D) involves grouping patients and selecting entire groups, which is different from the individual selection in this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is conducting an admission assessment for a newly admitted patient. What aspect of cultural competence should the nurse prioritize during the assessment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Asking the patient about their cultural background and preferences shows respect for their individuality and acknowledges the importance of cultural competence in providing person-centered care. 2. It allows the nurse to gain valuable insights into the patient's beliefs, values, and practices, enabling them to deliver culturally appropriate care. 3. By prioritizing this aspect, the nurse can establish rapport, build trust, and enhance communication with the patient, leading to better outcomes. 4. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they either involve assumptions, avoidance, or disregard for the patient's cultural background, which can lead to misunderstandings, discomfort, and ineffective care.
Question 4 of 9
When the lecture presentation was finished, the CI proceeded with the _______.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an open forum to solicit questions related to the topic under discussion is a common practice after a lecture presentation. This allows for clarification and deeper understanding. Choice A is incorrect as evaluation usually comes after the lecture. Choice B is incorrect because the Q&A portion typically focuses on the lecture content only. Choice D is incorrect as cracking humorous anecdotes is not a standard practice after a lecture.
Question 5 of 9
In the presentation of results of qualitative research, the nurse researcher uses as a reference in the write-up the
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: second. In qualitative research, the nurse researcher typically uses the second person as a reference in the write-up to maintain objectivity and convey findings accurately. Using "first" may introduce bias, "fourth" is irrelevant, and "third" is too far removed from the perspective of the researcher. By referencing the second person, the researcher can present the results in a clear and unbiased manner, enhancing the credibility of the study.
Question 6 of 9
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage cancer experiences intractable pain despite receiving opioid medications. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's pain?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because referring the patient to a pain management specialist for evaluation is essential in this scenario. The specialist can conduct a comprehensive assessment to identify the underlying causes of the intractable pain and recommend a tailored pain management plan. This approach ensures a multidisciplinary approach to address the complex nature of the patient's pain. Choice A is incorrect because simply increasing the dosage of the current opioid medication may not effectively address the underlying cause of the pain and can lead to potential side effects or opioid tolerance. Choice B is incorrect as switching to a different opioid medication without a thorough evaluation may not guarantee better pain control and can increase the risk of adverse effects or inadequate pain relief. Choice C is incorrect as administering adjuvant analgesic medications without addressing the root cause of the pain may not provide adequate pain relief and does not address the need for a specialized pain management plan.
Question 7 of 9
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of brief, severe, stabbing pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve. Episodes are triggered by touch, chewing, or cold exposure. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Trigeminal neuralgia. This condition is characterized by recurrent, severe, stabbing pain in the trigeminal nerve distribution triggered by touch, chewing, or cold exposure. The key feature is the characteristic lancinating pain, which is not typical of migraine (choice A), cluster headache (choice B), or tension-type headache (choice C). Migraine typically presents with pulsating, moderate to severe headache associated with nausea and sensitivity to light and sound. Cluster headache is characterized by severe, unilateral pain around the eye associated with autonomic symptoms. Tension-type headache presents with bilateral, pressing or tightening pain without specific triggers. Therefore, based on the description of the symptoms in the question, trigeminal neuralgia is the most likely diagnosis.
Question 8 of 9
What is the primary goal of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in a cardiac arrest situation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal of CPR is to restore spontaneous circulation and oxygenation to the body to maintain vital organ function. By performing chest compressions and rescue breaths, CPR aims to circulate oxygenated blood to the brain and other vital organs. This is crucial to prevent brain damage and increase the chances of survival. The other choices are incorrect because CPR does not address the underlying cause of cardiac arrest (A), provide pain relief (C), or prevent further complications such as organ failure (D). The immediate focus in a cardiac arrest situation is to maintain blood flow and oxygen delivery to vital organs until advanced medical care can be provided.
Question 9 of 9
At which stage of Lewin ' s planned change indicates the nurse identifying, planning, and implementing appropriate strategies ensuring that driving forces exceed restraining forces?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: unfreezing. Unfreezing is the initial stage in Lewin's planned change model where individuals become open to change by recognizing the need for it. During this stage, the nurse identifies the need for change, plans strategies to implement it, and works on overcoming resistance by ensuring that the driving forces (reasons for change) outweigh the restraining forces (barriers to change). Refreezing (A) is the final stage where the changes are reinforced and integrated into the organization. Movement (B) is the stage where actual change occurs, and in activism (D) is not a recognized stage in Lewin's model.