ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Nurse Rica, would like to start a conversation, which comunication technique she should use?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Broad opening. Nurse Rica should use this communication technique to encourage the patient to freely express themselves without leading or interrupting. This technique helps build rapport and trust, setting a positive tone for the conversation. A: Clarifying may be too direct and might make the patient feel pressured. B: Challenging can create defensiveness and hinder open communication. C: Restating may not be as effective in initiating a conversation as broad opening. In summary, broad opening allows for a more open and relaxed conversation, fostering a conducive environment for effective communication with the patient.
Question 2 of 9
A patient is prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for the treatment of depression. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyponatremia. SSRI medications can lead to the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), causing hyponatremia. This occurs due to increased levels of serotonin affecting the hypothalamus, leading to excessive ADH release. Hyponatremia can result in neurological symptoms and must be closely monitored. A: Bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of SSRIs. B: Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with SSRIs. D: Hypertension is not a common adverse effect of SSRIs; they may actually lower blood pressure.
Question 3 of 9
Nurse Sarah reads the physician's prescription to administer methylergonovine maleate (Methergin) intramuscularly after delivery. The rationale for giving this medication is which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prevents postpartum hemorrhage. Methylergonovine maleate is a uterotonic medication used to prevent and treat postpartum hemorrhage by causing strong uterine contractions, which help to control bleeding after delivery. It is not used to reduce lochia drainage (choice A), decrease uterine contractions (choice C), or maintain normal blood pressure (choice D). By understanding the pharmacological action of methylergonovine maleate in preventing postpartum hemorrhage, we can confidently select choice B as the correct answer.
Question 4 of 9
A patient that had a stroke is experiencing memory loss and impaired learning capacity. In which lobe does the nurse determine that brain damage has MOST likely occurred?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Temporal lobe. Memory and learning are primarily associated with the temporal lobe, specifically the hippocampus. Damage to this area due to stroke can lead to memory loss and impaired learning capacity. Frontal lobe (A) is involved in decision-making and problem-solving. Parietal lobe (B) is responsible for sensory processing. Occipital lobe (C) is related to visual processing. Therefore, the temporal lobe is the most likely site of brain damage in this scenario based on the symptoms presented.
Question 5 of 9
When a nurse commits an error in the progress notes the BEST action she should do is to
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action in this scenario is to choose option C: put a line across the sentence, make the correction over it, and sign. This method is recommended because it maintains the integrity of the original record by showing what was initially written and clearly indicating the correction. By crossing out the error, making the correction, and signing the entry, the nurse acknowledges and takes responsibility for the mistake while ensuring the accuracy and transparency of the documentation. Option A is incorrect as crossing the error many times can make the note illegible and may not clearly indicate the correction. Option B is incorrect because using correction fluid can make the note messy and may raise suspicions of tampering with the record. Option D is incorrect as erasing with a rubber eraser can damage the document and also raise concerns about the validity of the information. In summary, option C is the best choice as it allows for a clear and professional correction without compromising the integrity of the progress notes.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse assesses the uterine fundus of the mother. Which part of the abdomen will the nurse begin?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Umbilicus. The nurse begins assessing the uterine fundus at the level of the umbilicus as it is a standard reference point for postpartum fundal height measurement. This location allows for consistency and accuracy in tracking the descent of the uterus back into the pelvic cavity. Starting at the umbilicus also helps in monitoring the involution process and prevents potential errors in fundal height assessment. Symphysis pubis (A) is too low and not typically used as a reference point for uterine fundal assessment. Midline (B) is vague and does not provide a specific anatomical landmark. Sides of the abdomen (D) do not give a standardized starting point for measuring the uterine fundus, leading to potential variability in assessment.
Question 7 of 9
At which stage of Lewin ' s planned change indicates the nurse identifying, planning, and implementing appropriate strategies ensuring that driving forces exceed restraining forces?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: unfreezing. Unfreezing is the initial stage in Lewin's planned change model where individuals become open to change by recognizing the need for it. During this stage, the nurse identifies the need for change, plans strategies to implement it, and works on overcoming resistance by ensuring that the driving forces (reasons for change) outweigh the restraining forces (barriers to change). Refreezing (A) is the final stage where the changes are reinforced and integrated into the organization. Movement (B) is the stage where actual change occurs, and in activism (D) is not a recognized stage in Lewin's model.
Question 8 of 9
In as much as Almira complained of vaginal spotting and abdominal cramps, which among the following will the nurse anticipate as the MOST likely diagnosis of the physician after a vaginal examination?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Threatened abortion. Vaginal spotting and abdominal cramps are common symptoms of a threatened abortion, which occurs when there is a risk of miscarriage but the pregnancy remains viable. This diagnosis is likely after a vaginal examination to assess the cervix and presence of fetal heartbeat. A: Eclampsia is characterized by seizures in pregnancy due to high blood pressure, not typically presenting with vaginal spotting and cramps. C: Placenta previa involves the placenta covering the cervix, leading to painless vaginal bleeding, not associated with cramps. D: Abruptio placenta is premature separation of the placenta from the uterus, manifesting as painful bleeding, not typically with vaginal spotting and cramps.
Question 9 of 9
Ms. Nena is specifically assigned to talk individually with community leaders like the primary grade teacher and the barangay official in charge of the health committee. Which data collection method will the nurse use?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Key informant interview. Ms. Nena will use this method to gather in-depth information from knowledgeable individuals within the community. This approach allows her to gain insights and perspectives from key stakeholders, such as the primary grade teacher and barangay official, who have first-hand knowledge and experience. Key informant interviews are particularly useful for obtaining specific details, opinions, and insights that may not be easily accessible through other methods. In contrast, participant observer involves direct participation in community activities, community mapping focuses on spatial data collection, and social survey typically involves collecting data from a larger sample size rather than individual key informants.