Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Nursing Answer Key Questions

Question 1 of 5

Nurse Reese is preparing the patient assignment t for the day and needs to assign patients to a midwife and nursing assistant. Which patient should the nurse assign to the midwife because of patient needs that cannot be met by the nursing assistant? A patient requiring________.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient requiring a dressing change of post-caesarian surgery should be assigned to the midwife because this task involves specialized knowledge and skills related to wound care and post-operative care. Performing a dressing change for a post-caesarian surgery patient requires expertise to ensure proper hygiene, wound healing, and prevention of post-operative complications. This task goes beyond the scope of practice for a nursing assistant and should be done by a healthcare professional with higher qualifications and training, such as a midwife.

Question 2 of 5

Nurse May is alarm by the incidence of number of young adults in the community with mental problems. Which of the following should be her PRIORITY nursing initiative?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing initiative for Nurse May should be to set up a mental health program in the community. This proactive approach focuses on prevention, early intervention, and support for individuals experiencing mental health issues. By setting up a mental health program, Nurse May can address the root causes of mental problems in young adults in the community, provide education and awareness, offer counseling services, and promote mental well-being. This initiative can have a long-term impact on the mental health of individuals and help reduce the incidence of mental problems in the community. Setting up a mental health program is a holistic and sustainable approach to addressing mental health issues in the community.

Question 3 of 5

A patient presents with sudden-onset, severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, the affected eye appears red, with a steamy cornea and mid-dilated, non-reactive pupil. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation described is highly suggestive of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This condition typically presents with sudden-onset severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. The red eye, steamy cornea (due to corneal edema), and mid-dilated, non-reactive pupil (from the unopposed force of the dilator muscle) are classic findings in acute angle-closure glaucoma. The increase in intraocular pressure compromises blood flow to the eye, leading to symptoms of blurred vision and possible visual loss. Immediate management usually involves lowering intraocular pressure with medications or surgical intervention to prevent vision loss. Central retinal artery occlusion, optic neuritis, and corneal ulcer typically present with different clinical features and are not consistent with the described presentation.

Question 4 of 5

A patient presents with scrotal pain, swelling, and erythema. On physical examination, there is a tender, fluctuant mass in the scrotum. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis in this scenario is epididymitis. Epididymitis is an inflammation of the epididymis, a coiled tube at the back of the testicle that stores and carries sperm. Common symptoms include scrotal pain, swelling, erythema (redness), and a tender, fluctuant mass in the scrotum due to an abscess. Risk factors for epididymitis include urinary tract infections, sexually transmitted infections (such as gonorrhea or chlamydia), and recent urological procedures. It is important to differentiate epididymitis from testicular torsion, which would present with sudden, severe testicular pain, absent cremasteric reflex, and a high-riding testicle. Testicular cancer typically presents as a painless mass or swelling in the scrotum, and hydrocele presents as painless scrotal swelling due to a collection of fluid

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for managing a patient with acute respiratory failure and hypercapnia due to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In a patient with acute respiratory failure and hypercapnia due to a COPD exacerbation, the most appropriate intervention is the initiation of non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV). NIPPV helps improve ventilation and oxygenation by providing mechanical support to the patient's breathing without the need for endotracheal intubation. It can reduce the work of breathing, decrease carbon dioxide retention, and improve respiratory muscle function. This intervention is particularly beneficial for COPD exacerbations as it can help alleviate hypercapnia and hypoxemia, leading to improved outcomes and potentially reducing the need for invasive ventilation methods. Therefore, NIPPV is the recommended management strategy in this scenario.

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