ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Nurse Raymond is handling a group of student nurses and he is teaching them about fluids and electrolytes. He is correct when he says that a substance moves from an area of higher concentration, this is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Diffusion Rationale: Diffusion is the movement of a substance from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. This process occurs naturally to achieve equilibrium. In the context of fluids and electrolytes, this movement helps maintain balance within the body. Unlike osmosis, which involves the movement of water molecules across a semi-permeable membrane, diffusion applies to the movement of all types of substances. Filtration involves the movement of substances through a barrier under pressure, and active transport requires energy to move substances against a concentration gradient. Therefore, the correct answer is diffusion as it aligns with the principle of movement from high to low concentration for achieving equilibrium.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the ff. nursing interventions will help prevent complications in the patient with Bell’s Palsy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D - Lubricating eye drops Rationale: Lubricating eye drops help prevent complications such as corneal abrasions in patients with Bell's Palsy by keeping the eye moist and preventing dryness. Bell's Palsy can cause difficulty in closing the eye properly, leading to dryness and potential damage to the cornea. Using lubricating eye drops helps maintain eye health. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Megavitamin therapy - Not directly related to preventing complications in Bell's Palsy. B: Application of ice to the affected area - Ice may not address eye dryness or prevent corneal abrasions. C: Elastic bandages - Not relevant to preventing complications associated with Bell's Palsy.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following is the humoral immune response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because in the humoral immune response, B cells are stimulated by T helper cells or macrophages to differentiate into plasma cells that produce antibodies or memory cells. This process involves the production of specific antibodies that target the foreign antigen. Choice A is incorrect because B cells do not phagocytize antigens; instead, they produce antibodies. Choice B is incorrect because T cells do not turn into plasma cells. It is the B cells that differentiate into plasma cells in the humoral immune response. Choice D is incorrect because T cells do not produce antibodies. T cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity, not the humoral immune response.
Question 4 of 9
To treat cervical cancer, a client has had an applicator of radioactive material placed in the vagina. Which observation by the nurse indicates a radiation hazard?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because having the head of the bed at a 30-degree angle can cause the radioactive material to shift, potentially leading to an uneven distribution of radiation. This could result in harmful exposure to surrounding tissues. A: Maintaining the client on strict bed rest is important to prevent displacement of the radioactive applicator. C: Providing a complete bed bath each morning is necessary for hygiene and does not pose a radiation hazard. D: Checking the applicator's position every 4 hours is essential to ensure proper placement and does not indicate a radiation hazard.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is gathering data on a patient. Which data will the nurse report as objective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because respirations of 16 is an observable and measurable data point that can be quantified. Objective data are factual, measurable, and based on observable phenomena. In contrast, choices A, B, and D are subjective data as they rely on the patient's feelings or experiences, which are not directly measurable or observable by the nurse. Reporting a headache or feeling nauseated are subjective symptoms that are based on the patient's perception and cannot be verified without further assessment. Therefore, only choice C provides objective data that can be accurately reported by the nurse.
Question 6 of 9
The standing orders for a patient include acetaminophen 650 mg every 4 hours prn for headache. After assessing the patient, the nurse identifies the need for headache relief and determines that the patient has not had acetaminophen in the past 4 hours. Which action will the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer the acetaminophen. The rationale is as follows: 1. The patient has a standing order for acetaminjson for headache relief. 2. The nurse has assessed that the patient needs headache relief and has not had the medication in the past 4 hours. 3. Administering the acetaminophen aligns with the prescribed treatment plan and the patient's needs. Summary: - Option B is incorrect because obtaining a verbal order is not necessary when there is a standing order. - Option C is incorrect as nursing assistive personnel should not administer medications without direct supervision. - Option D is incorrect as pain assessment should precede medication administration to ensure appropriateness.
Question 7 of 9
A client has undergone the Snellen eye chart test and has 20/40 vision. Which of the ff is true for this client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. In the Snellen eye chart test, the first number (20) represents the distance at which the client is viewing the chart, and the second number (40) represents the distance at which a person with normal vision can read the same line. Therefore, a client with 20/40 vision sees letters at 20 feet that others with normal vision can read at 40 feet. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the interpretation of the 20/40 vision result from the Snellen eye chart test. B is incorrect because the client does not see letters at 40 feet that others can read at 20 feet. Choices C and D are incorrect because the Snellen eye chart test measures visual acuity, not color perception.
Question 8 of 9
Which information indicates a nurse has a good understanding of a goal? It is a statement describing the patient’s accomplishments without a time
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: A goal should be measurable to track progress effectively. Step 2: The statement "a measurable change in a patient's physical state" indicates a specific and quantifiable outcome. Step 3: This aligns with the SMART criteria for goal setting - Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound. Step 4: Other choices lack the specificity and measurability required for a clear goal. Step 5: Choice A talks about restriction, which is not directly related to understanding a goal. Step 6: Choice B focuses on negative responses, which is not necessarily indicative of understanding the goal. Step 7: Choice C is vague and lacks the specificity of a measurable outcome.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse interprets this as?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse interprets this as respiratory alkalosis because the patient is likely experiencing hyperventilation, leading to a decrease in CO2 levels and respiratory alkalosis. This is indicated by an increase in pH and a decrease in PaCO2 on arterial blood gas analysis. Metabolic acidosis (choice B) is characterized by low pH and low bicarbonate levels, not seen in this scenario. Respiratory acidosis (choice A) is characterized by high PaCO2 levels and low pH, which is not the case here. Metabolic alkalosis (choice D) is characterized by high pH and high bicarbonate levels, which is not consistent with the patient's presentation.