Nurse Raymond is handling a group of student nurses and he is teaching them about fluids and electrolytes. He is correct when he says that a substance moves from an area of higher concentration, this is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Diffusion Rationale: Diffusion is the movement of a substance from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. This process occurs naturally to achieve equilibrium. In the context of fluids and electrolytes, this movement helps maintain balance within the body. Unlike osmosis, which involves the movement of water molecules across a semi-permeable membrane, diffusion applies to the movement of all types of substances. Filtration involves the movement of substances through a barrier under pressure, and active transport requires energy to move substances against a concentration gradient. Therefore, the correct answer is diffusion as it aligns with the principle of movement from high to low concentration for achieving equilibrium.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because respiratory rate is an observable and measurable data point, making it objective. Objective data is factual and observable, such as vital signs. Choices A, B, and D are subjective data as they rely on the patient's perception or interpretation, which can be influenced by various factors and may not always be accurate or reliable. In this case, the nurse can directly measure and document the patient's respiratory rate, making it an objective piece of information.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because in myasthenia gravis, which is characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue, the administration of edrophonium will temporarily improve muscle strength due to increased availability of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. This improvement should be noted within 30 to 60 seconds after the administration of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because joint pain is not a typical response to edrophonium in the context of myasthenia gravis. Choice B is incorrect because feelings of faintness, dizziness, hypotension, and flushing are more indicative of a cholinergic crisis, which occurs when too much edrophonium is administered. Choice D is incorrect because an increase in muscle strength post-edrophonium administration would not be expected in a client with myasthenia gravis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a decreased number of functioning acetylcholine receptor sites would result in the disease. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that transmits signals between nerves and muscles. If there are fewer receptor sites for acetylcholine to bind to, this can lead to impaired nerve-muscle communication, causing the disease. Choice A is incorrect because a genetic defect in acetylcholine production would not directly affect the receptor sites. Choice B is incorrect because a reduced amount of acetylcholine would still be able to bind to the available receptor sites. Choice D is incorrect because inhibiting the enzyme Ache would not directly impact the receptor sites.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Objective data are measurable and observable facts obtained through physical examination or diagnostic tests. In this case, "Respirations 16" is a quantifiable and observable measurement, making it objective data. It is not influenced by personal interpretation or feelings. The other choices, such as "States 'doesn't feel good'", "Reports a headache", and "Nauseated" are subjective data because they are based on the patient's feelings or experiences, which can vary depending on individual perception and interpretation, making them less reliable for making clinical decisions. By focusing on objective data like "Respirations 16", the nurse can provide a more accurate assessment of the patient's condition.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because reassessing the client's diet, medication, and lifestyle habits allows the nurse to identify any factors contributing to the elevated blood glucose levels. By identifying possible issues, the nurse can make necessary adjustments to the treatment plan to better manage the client's condition. Increasing medication dosage without understanding the root cause may lead to adverse effects. Simply documenting the elevated levels without taking proactive measures does not address the problem. Notifying the client's family is not the nurse's first action; the focus should be on assessing and addressing the client's needs.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, hyperglycemia and hypokalemia. Hyperglycemia can occur in adult clients due to various factors such as diabetes or stress. Hypokalemia can be a consequence of hyperglycemia or other conditions leading to potassium loss. Monitoring for these metabolic complications is essential to ensure the client's well-being. Other choices are incorrect because hypoglycemia and hypercalcemia (choice A) are less likely to occur concurrently in adult clients. Hyperglycemia and hyperkalemia (choice B) are less common as hyperkalemia is usually associated with renal dysfunction. Hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia (choice D) are less likely to be monitored together as they are not commonly seen in the same clinical context.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anemia. Anemia is a common condition characterized by a decrease in red blood cells or hemoglobin levels, leading to symptoms like fatigue and weakness. It is often suspected based on symptoms such as pale skin and shortness of breath. Rheumatic arthritis (B) is a type of arthritis affecting joints, not related to the blood. Leukemia (C) is a type of cancer affecting the blood and bone marrow. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) (D) is an autoimmune disease that can affect various organs, not specifically related to blood cell levels. Therefore, based on the symptoms described, anemia is the most likely condition to be suspected.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. The cranial nerve responsible for facial expression is CN VII, the facial nerve. 2. When a neurologist asks a patient to smile, they are testing the function of CN VII. 3. CN II (optic nerve) is responsible for vision, not facial expression. 4. CN X (vagus nerve) is responsible for various functions like heart rate and digestion, not facial expression. 5. CN XI (accessory nerve) is responsible for shoulder movement, not facial expression. Summary: Testing a patient's ability to smile involves assessing the function of CN VII, the facial nerve. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are associated with different functions and not responsible for controlling facial muscles.