Nurse Pat promised to a post- surgical patient, that she would come back to assist in his ambulation after carrying out the physician's order. This follows the principle of

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Adult Health Nursing Quizlet Final Questions

Question 1 of 9

Nurse Pat promised to a post- surgical patient, that she would come back to assist in his ambulation after carrying out the physician's order. This follows the principle of

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Fidelity is a principle of ethics that relates to being faithful or loyal to one's commitments and responsibilities. When Nurse Pat promises to assist the post-surgical patient with ambulation after carrying out the physician's order, she is demonstrating fidelity by honoring her commitment to the patient. This principle highlights the importance of keeping promises, being reliable, and maintaining trust in the nurse-patient relationship.

Question 2 of 9

A patient presents with redness, pain, and photophobia in the left eye. Slit-lamp examination reveals ciliary injection, corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation described in the question is most consistent with anterior uveitis. Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is characterized by redness, pain, and photophobia in the affected eye. Slit-lamp examination typically reveals ciliary injection (reddening of the conjunctiva and episclera), corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with a fixed reaction to light (miosis). This occurs due to inflammation within the anterior chamber of the eye involving the iris and ciliary body.

Question 3 of 9

A patient is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for the management of hypertension. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed with an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for managing hypertension, the nurse should monitor closely for signs of hyperkalemia. ACE inhibitors can affect the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, leading to decreased aldosterone secretion and impaired potassium excretion by the kidneys. As a result, potassium levels in the blood may increase, leading to hyperkalemia.

Question 4 of 9

A patient presents with recurrent episodes of vertigo, nausea, and nystagmus, often triggered by head movements. Dix-Hallpike maneuver elicits positional vertigo and rotary nystagmus. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with recurrent episodes of vertigo, nausea, and nystagmus triggered by head movements, along with a positive Dix-Hallpike maneuver eliciting positional vertigo and rotary nystagmus, is classic for Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV). BPPV is the most common cause of vertigo due to a mechanical problem in the inner ear. In BPPV, brief episodes of vertigo are typically triggered by specific head movements, such as rolling over in bed or looking up. The characteristic rotary nystagmus observed in BPPV is consistent with the brief, intense episodes of vertigo that patients experience. The Dix-Hallpike maneuver, commonly used to diagnose BPPV, involves moving the patient from sitting to a supine head-hanging position and can induce vertigo and nystagmus in affected

Question 5 of 9

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with acute exacerbation and severe dyspnea. Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals pH 7.28, PaO2 55 mmHg, PaCO2 65 mmHg, and HCO3- 30 mEq/L. Which of the following acid-base disturbances is most likely present in this patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this case, the patient is experiencing respiratory acidosis as indicated by the low pH (7.28), elevated PaCO2 (65 mmHg), and elevated HCO3- (30 mEq/L). The primary acid-base disturbance is respiratory acidosis due to the retention of carbon dioxide (PaCO2 >45 mmHg) leading to an increase in HCO3- as a compensatory mechanism to maintain pH within normal limits. The elevated HCO3- levels (metabolic compensation) are trying to counterbalance the increased PaCO2 levels (respiratory acidosis) by increasing bicarbonate to attempt to normalize the pH. Overall, the ABG analysis shows respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation in this COPD patient with an acute exacerbation and severe dyspnea.

Question 6 of 9

In the care of families, crisis intervention is an important part of _____.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Crisis intervention is an important part of secondary prevention in the care of families. Secondary prevention involves activities that aim to reduce the impact of a crisis or event that has already occurred. Crisis intervention provides immediate support and strategies to help families cope with and overcome a crisis situation. By addressing the crisis quickly and effectively, secondary prevention can help prevent further negative outcomes and promote the well-being of the family members.

Question 7 of 9

The nurse specialist cites a situation. If a patient experiences episodes of severe nausea and vomiting with more than 1,000 ml. of vomitus with in a period of four hours, which of the following is the nurses MOST appropriate action?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Severe nausea and vomiting with a large volume of vomitus can indicate a serious underlying issue such as gastrointestinal obstruction or other medical emergencies. In this situation, it is crucial for the nurse to notify the physician immediately so that further assessment and appropriate management can be initiated promptly. Delay in seeking medical help can lead to complications and worsen the patient's condition. It is important to act quickly and involve the physician in situations where the patient's health may be at risk.

Question 8 of 9

A pregnant woman presents with vaginal bleeding and passage of tissue at 10 weeks gestation. On examination, the cervix is dilated, and products of conception are visualized in the cervical os. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Complete abortion is the most likely cause of the symptoms described. In a complete abortion, all products of conception are expelled from the uterus. Symptoms include vaginal bleeding, passage of tissue, and dilation of the cervix. In this scenario, the presentation of a dilated cervix with visualized products of conception is classic for a complete abortion at 10 weeks gestation.

Question 9 of 9

How should the nurse position the patient who is in a somnolent status and still under the effect of anesthesia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When a patient is in a somnolent status and still under the effect of anesthesia, the most appropriate position to place the patient is in a supine position with the head of the bed slightly elevated. This position helps prevent any obstruction of the airway and promotes optimal ventilation. Elevating the head of the bed ensures that the patient's airway remains clear and allows for proper breathing. Additionally, this position helps prevent aspiration and promotes proper circulation. Overall, the supine position with the head bed slightly elevated is the safest and most effective position for a patient in this condition.

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