ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Nurse Oscar Informs the other members of the team about osteoporosis. Which of the following is TRUE of the disease in the Philippines
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Filipinos have generally low awareness about osteoporosis. Despite the increasing number of cases in the country, many Filipinos still lack knowledge about the disease and its risk factors. Osteoporosis is a significant health concern in the Philippines, especially among the elderly population, but there is still a need for more education and awareness campaigns to improve prevention and management strategies.
Question 2 of 9
Nurse Vera informs the patient she should be screened for pre-eclmapsia during this term of pregnancy_______.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pre-eclampsia is a serious condition that can occur during pregnancy, usually after 20 weeks gestation. It is important to screen for pre-eclampsia early in the pregnancy to monitor and manage the condition effectively. Screening for pre-eclampsia typically begins in the first trimester of pregnancy to identify any risk factors and provide appropriate care for the patient. Therefore, Nurse Vera informing the patient to get screened for pre-eclampsia in the first term of pregnancy is the most appropriate time to start monitoring for this condition.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with suspected tuberculosis (TB) presents with cough, weight loss, night sweats, and hemoptysis. Chest X-ray reveals upper lobe infiltrates and cavitation. Which of the following diagnostic tests is most appropriate for confirming the diagnosis of pulmonary TB?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with suspected pulmonary TB, the most appropriate diagnostic test for confirming the diagnosis is the sputum acid-fast bacilli (AFB) smear and culture. This test involves examining sputum samples under the microscope for the presence of acid-fast bacilli, which are characteristic of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria that causes TB. Additionally, culturing the sputum allows for the bacteria to grow in a controlled environment, further confirming the diagnosis. In the given scenario, the patient's symptoms (cough, weight loss, night sweats, hemoptysis), along with chest X-ray findings of upper lobe infiltrates and cavitation, are highly suggestive of pulmonary TB. Therefore, performing a sputum AFB smear and culture is crucial for definitive diagnosis and initiation of appropriate treatment. The other options (Tuberculin skin test, Interferon
Question 4 of 9
Nurse Adalynn explains to the mothers that early indication for hypovolemia caused by postpartum hemorrhage is _____.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nurse Adalynn explains to the mothers that early indication for hypovolemia caused by postpartum hemorrhage is an increasing pulse and decreasing blood pressure. Hypovolemia is a condition where there is a decreased volume of circulating blood in the body, often characterized by fluid loss such as through bleeding. As blood volume decreases, the heart rate increases in an attempt to maintain adequate perfusion to organs and tissues. This results in an elevated pulse rate. Additionally, as the blood volume decreases, the blood pressure may drop due to the reduced amount of blood being pumped around the body. Therefore, monitoring for an increasing pulse and decreasing blood pressure is crucial in detecting hypovolemia early, allowing for prompt intervention to prevent further complications.
Question 5 of 9
Which is the BEST strategy that Nurse should employ to give feedback on patients evaluation of health services?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Conducting a staff meeting is the best strategy for Nurse Nena to give feedback on patients' evaluation of health services. This option allows for direct communication and interaction with the team, ensuring that feedback is effectively conveyed, discussed, and understood by all members. Staff meetings provide a platform for open dialogue, clarification of any concerns, and collaborative problem-solving. It also promotes team cohesion and shared accountability in improving health services based on patients' feedback. This approach encourages active participation and engagement from all team members, fostering a more effective and comprehensive response to the evaluations received.
Question 6 of 9
A client with congestive heart failure has been receiving digoxin (lanoxin). Which finding indicates that the medication is having a desired effect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin is a medication commonly used in the treatment of congestive heart failure because it helps to improve cardiac output and reduce heart failure symptoms. One of the desired effects of digoxin is an increase in urinary output. This is because digoxin helps to improve cardiac function, which can lead to better circulation and increased kidney perfusion. As a result, the kidneys are better able to filter and excrete excess fluid, leading to increased urine output. Therefore, an increase in urinary output indicates that the digoxin is having a positive effect in managing the client's congestive heart failure. The other options, such as increased weight, improved appetite, and increased pedal edema, are not indicative of a desired effect of digoxin therapy.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following procedures would be MOST helpful to Nurse Victor to confirm the underlying cause of cardiogenic shock?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Monitoring cardiac enzymes would be most helpful to Nurse Victor to confirm the underlying cause of cardiogenic shock. Cardiac enzymes are specific markers in the blood that indicate damage to the heart muscle, such as troponin and creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB). When a patient experiences cardiogenic shock, there is usually damage to the heart muscle which leads to the release of these enzymes into the bloodstream. Monitoring cardiac enzymes can help confirm if the cause of cardiogenic shock is related to myocardial infarction or another cardiac issue. This information is crucial for determining the appropriate treatment and management plan for the patient. Monitoring pulmonary artery pressure, mean arterial pressure, and central venous pressure may provide important hemodynamic information but may not directly confirm the underlying cause of cardiogenic shock.
Question 8 of 9
A patient is admitted with a suspected myocardial infarction. Which cardiac biomarker is most specific for myocardial injury?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Troponin is the most specific cardiac biomarker for myocardial injury. Troponin I and Troponin T are proteins released into the bloodstream when there is damage to the heart muscle, making them highly indicative of myocardial infarction. Troponin levels rise within a few hours of cardiac injury, peak within 24-48 hours, and can remain elevated for up to 2 weeks. Troponin is considered the gold standard biomarker for the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction due to its high specificity and sensitivity for cardiac injury. In contrast, Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) and myoglobin are also used in diagnosing myocardial infarction but are less specific than troponin. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) is primarily used in heart failure diagnosis and management, and its levels are not specific to myocardial injury.
Question 9 of 9
The last and necessary part of the activity is _______.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The last and necessary part of any activity should involve an evaluation process. By evaluating the activity, the organizers can gather feedback on what worked well and what areas need improvement. This feedback is crucial for enhancing future activities that are similar in nature. It allows for reflections on the effectiveness of the activity, identifies strengths and weaknesses, and helps in making necessary adjustments for better outcomes in the future. Overall, evaluation ensures continuous improvement and development in organizing successful activities.