Nurse Oscar Informs the other members of the team about osteoporosis. Which of the following is TRUE of the disease in the Philippines

Questions 165

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Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Nurse Oscar Informs the other members of the team about osteoporosis. Which of the following is TRUE of the disease in the Philippines

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Filipinos have generally low awareness about osteoporosis. Despite the increasing number of cases in the country, many Filipinos still lack knowledge about the disease and its risk factors. Osteoporosis is a significant health concern in the Philippines, especially among the elderly population, but there is still a need for more education and awareness campaigns to improve prevention and management strategies.

Question 2 of 9

A patient presents with sudden onset of severe, unilateral ear pain, diminished hearing, and purulent otorrhea. Otoscopic examination reveals a bulging, erythematous tympanic membrane with obscured landmarks. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Acute otitis media is the most likely condition responsible for this presentation. The sudden onset of severe, unilateral ear pain, diminished hearing, and purulent otorrhea are classic symptoms of acute otitis media. Otoscopic examination revealing a bulging, erythematous tympanic membrane with obscured landmarks further supports the diagnosis. The bulging of the tympanic membrane is due to the accumulation of fluid and pus behind it, causing the characteristic appearance. Treatment typically involves antibiotics to help clear the infection and relieve symptoms. If left untreated, acute otitis media can lead to complications such as perforation of the eardrum or mastoiditis.

Question 3 of 9

A patient with renal failure presents with confusion, seizures, asterixis, and a sweet odor to the breath. Laboratory findings reveal severe metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, and elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with renal failure, confusion, seizures, asterixis, and a sweet odor to the breath, along with laboratory findings of severe metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, and elevated BUN and creatinine levels, is consistent with uremic encephalopathy. Uremic encephalopathy is a neurological complication of acute or chronic renal failure resulting from the buildup of uremic toxins in the blood, leading to various neurological symptoms such as confusion and seizures. The sweet odor to the breath can be attributed to the presence of urea, a waste product that accumulates in renal failure. Other metabolic abnormalities like hyperkalemia and severe metabolic acidosis are also common in renal failure. It is crucial to promptly recognize and manage uremic encephalopathy to prevent further neurological complications.

Question 4 of 9

The client asks the nurse about using decongestant nasal sprays. Which of the following statements by the nurse is CORRECT regarding its use?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement regarding the use of decongestant nasal sprays is that "Nasal sprays should not be used for more than three days because it can worsen congestion." Prolonged use of decongestant nasal sprays can lead to rebound congestion, where the congestion worsens with extended use. Therefore, it is important to limit the use of these sprays to avoid this side effect. It is recommended to use decongestant nasal sprays for no longer than three consecutive days.

Question 5 of 9

A patient with suspected tuberculosis (TB) presents with cough, weight loss, night sweats, and hemoptysis. Chest X-ray reveals upper lobe infiltrates and cavitation. Which of the following diagnostic tests is most appropriate for confirming the diagnosis of pulmonary TB?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with suspected pulmonary TB, the most appropriate diagnostic test for confirming the diagnosis is the sputum acid-fast bacilli (AFB) smear and culture. This test involves examining sputum samples under the microscope for the presence of acid-fast bacilli, which are characteristic of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria that causes TB. Additionally, culturing the sputum allows for the bacteria to grow in a controlled environment, further confirming the diagnosis. In the given scenario, the patient's symptoms (cough, weight loss, night sweats, hemoptysis), along with chest X-ray findings of upper lobe infiltrates and cavitation, are highly suggestive of pulmonary TB. Therefore, performing a sputum AFB smear and culture is crucial for definitive diagnosis and initiation of appropriate treatment. The other options (Tuberculin skin test, Interferon

Question 6 of 9

Type I IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reaction is promptly managed with ____.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Type I IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reactions, such as anaphylaxis, are promptly managed with epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it helps counteract the severe symptoms by relaxing the muscles in the airways, constricting blood vessels, and decreasing swelling. It acts quickly to reverse the potentially life-threatening effects of the allergic reaction and is crucial in managing anaphylaxis effectively. Other medications like antihistamines (e.g., diphenhydramine) and corticosteroids may be used as adjuncts, but epinephrine remains the primary treatment for immediate hypersensitivity reactions.

Question 7 of 9

The nurse knows that a dog bite has a shorter incubation for rabies if located in the

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rabies has a shorter incubation period if the bite is located on the hand. This is because bites on the hand are more likely to have direct access to nerve pathways, which can lead to a faster spread of the rabies virus to the central nervous system. In general, bites on parts of the body closer to the brain and spinal cord, such as the hand and face, can result in a quicker onset of rabies symptoms compared to bites on farther extremities like the leg or abdomen.

Question 8 of 9

Which is not a correct statement regarding record-keeping?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Record-keeping is not an optional task; it is a critical aspect of professional nursing practice. As a nurse, maintaining accurate and timely records is essential for providing quality care, ensuring legal and ethical standards are met, and promoting patient safety. Failure to keep thorough records can lead to serious consequences such as compromising patient care, violating regulations, and even facing legal consequences. Thus, record-keeping should be seen as a mandatory part of the professional duty of nurses rather than an optional task that can be done when circumstances allow.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse TEACH the patient's care giver regarding tracheostomy care?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Cleaning the inner cannula daily helps prevent the accumulation of secretions and debris, which can lead to blockages and infections. It is an essential aspect of tracheostomy care to maintain the patency of the airway and prevent complications. Caregivers should be taught how to safely remove, clean, and reinsert the inner cannula as part of routine tracheostomy care.

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