ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Nurse Merry 's application to Canada has finally been approved and she was advised to depart in three months But, she is also enrolled in the graduate school and ambivalent to go because of this engagement plus the fact that her mother has just been discharged from the hospital. Which of the following actions is BEST?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Nurse Merry should tell the recruiter to give her more time to settle her personal affairs before departing to Canada. This is the best action because it shows responsibility and consideration for her current commitments and family situation. By requesting more time, she can prioritize her mother's recovery and complete her graduate studies, demonstrating good decision-making skills and care for her loved ones. Option A is incorrect because it dismisses the importance of family and personal obligations. Option B is incorrect as it shows a lack of planning and responsibility. Option D is incorrect as it suggests running away from problems instead of addressing them responsibly.
Question 2 of 9
The patient asks Nurse Vera, when could you hear the fetal heart of my baby? Which of the following should be the BEST answer of Nurse Vera?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fifth month. Nurse Vera should explain that the fetal heart can typically be heard using a Doppler ultrasound device around the fifth month of pregnancy. This is because the baby's heart is developed enough to produce audible sounds by this time. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in the ninth month, the baby is ready for delivery, in the third month the heart is still developing, and in the first month the heart is just beginning to form and is not yet audible.
Question 3 of 9
The physician ordered to start Ms. Mely on Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN). What Is your INITIAL step to be undertaken PRIOR to this intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct initial step before starting TPN is to evaluate the patient's tolerance to glucose. This is crucial to ensure the patient can metabolize the glucose effectively and avoid complications such as hyperglycemia. Assessing affordability (A) is important but not the immediate concern. Identifying allergies (C) should be done but is not the first step. Assessing the patient's understanding (D) is important but not as critical as evaluating glucose tolerance before starting TPN.
Question 4 of 9
A surgeon accidentally cuts his patient's bladder while attempting to remove his appendix. The surgeon could be guilty of _________
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Malpractice. Malpractice refers to professional negligence or failure to perform duties according to accepted standards of practice. In this scenario, the surgeon's act of cutting the patient's bladder during an appendectomy could be considered a breach of duty and failure to provide the expected standard of care, which falls under malpractice. Battery (A) involves intentional harmful or offensive contact without consent. Negligence (B) is the failure to exercise reasonable care, but in this case, it was more than just a lack of care. Tort (D) refers to a civil wrong that causes harm, but malpractice is a specific type of tort related to professional negligence.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix) for secondary prevention of thrombotic events. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor closely during clopidogrel therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Platelet count. Platelet count should be monitored closely during clopidogrel therapy because it works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of clot formation. Monitoring platelet count helps assess the drug's effectiveness and prevent potential complications like bleeding or clotting events. Prothrombin time (A), activated partial thromboplastin time (B), and international normalized ratio (D) are tests that primarily assess the coagulation factors and are not directly affected by clopidogrel therapy, making them less relevant for monitoring this specific medication.
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents with watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea after consuming contaminated water from a stream during a camping trip. Laboratory tests reveal oocysts in the stool sample. Which of the following parasites is most likely responsible for this infection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cryptosporidium parvum. This parasite is the most likely cause of the infection due to its presentation with watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea after consuming contaminated water. Laboratory tests revealing oocysts in the stool sample further support this diagnosis as Cryptosporidium parvum is known to produce oocysts in the stool. Giardia lamblia (choice A) presents with similar symptoms but does not typically produce oocysts. Entamoeba histolytica (choice B) is more associated with bloody diarrhea and liver abscesses. Cyclospora cayetanensis (choice D) is also associated with watery diarrhea but is less common in this scenario. Thus, based on the symptoms and laboratory findings, Cryptosporidium parvum is the most likely culprit.
Question 7 of 9
When there is failure to supervise a child adequately, especially in children younger than 12, the kind of child abuse is, which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neglect. Failure to supervise a child adequately falls under the category of neglect, which is the failure to provide for a child's basic needs such as supervision, food, shelter, and medical care. In this scenario, the lack of proper supervision constitutes neglect as it puts the child at risk of harm or danger. Emotional abuse (A) involves harming a child's emotional well-being through actions like verbal abuse. Sexual abuse (C) involves inappropriate sexual behavior towards a child. Physical abuse (D) involves causing physical harm or injury to a child. In this case, the failure to supervise the child adequately is best categorized as neglect, making choice B the correct answer.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of brief, severe, stabbing pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve. Episodes are triggered by touch, chewing, or cold exposure. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Trigeminal neuralgia. This condition is characterized by recurrent, severe, stabbing pain in the trigeminal nerve distribution triggered by touch, chewing, or cold exposure. The key feature is the characteristic lancinating pain, which is not typical of migraine (choice A), cluster headache (choice B), or tension-type headache (choice C). Migraine typically presents with pulsating, moderate to severe headache associated with nausea and sensitivity to light and sound. Cluster headache is characterized by severe, unilateral pain around the eye associated with autonomic symptoms. Tension-type headache presents with bilateral, pressing or tightening pain without specific triggers. Therefore, based on the description of the symptoms in the question, trigeminal neuralgia is the most likely diagnosis.
Question 9 of 9
Nurse Victor reviews the medical history of patient Mila. Which of the following conditions is the MOST common cause of cardiogenic shock?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute myocardial infarction (MI) is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. During an MI, there is significant damage to the heart muscle, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and subsequent shock. This results in inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased hemoglobin level (A) may lead to anemia but is not the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. Hypotension (C) is a symptom of shock, not the cause. Coronary artery disease (D) is a risk factor for MI but not the direct cause of cardiogenic shock.