Nurse Lourdes is teaching a client recovering from addisonian crisis about the need to take fludrocortisone acetate and hydrocortisone at home. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions?

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Question 1 of 5

Nurse Lourdes is teaching a client recovering from addisonian crisis about the need to take fludrocortisone acetate and hydrocortisone at home. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it demonstrates an understanding of the dosing schedule for both medications. Fludrocortisone acetate is usually taken in the morning to mimic the body's natural cortisol release, while hydrocortisone is typically taken in divided doses throughout the day to prevent adrenal insufficiency. Option C shows the client plans to take two-thirds of the dose in the morning and one-third in the late afternoon, aligning with the recommended dosing schedule. Option A is incorrect because taking hydrocortisone in the late afternoon is not ideal for mimicking the body's natural cortisol release. Option B is incorrect as taking all hydrocortisone in the morning may lead to suboptimal control of adrenal insufficiency throughout the day. Option D is incorrect because taking the entire dose at bedtime does not align with the recommended dosing schedules for these medications.

Question 2 of 5

Nurse Michelle calculates the IV flow rate for a postoperative client. The client receives 3,000 ml of Ringer's lactate solution IV to run over 24 hours. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 10 drops per milliliter. The nurse should regulate the client's IV to deliver how many drops per minute?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the IV flow rate in drops per minute, we use the formula: (Drop factor x Volume to be infused in ml) / Time in minutes Given drop factor of 10, 3,000 ml to be infused over 24 hours (1,440 minutes), we get: (10 drops/ml x 3,000 ml) / 1,440 minutes = 21 drops/minute (Answer B). Choice A (18) is incorrect as it does not consider the correct drop factor and volume. Choice C (35) and D (40) are incorrect as they result from incorrect calculations.

Question 3 of 5

Mario comes to the clinic complaining of fever, drenching night sweats, and unexplained weight loss over the past 3 months. Physical examination reveals a single enlarged supraclavicular lymph node. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most probable diagnosis for Mario is Hodgkin's disease. This is supported by his symptoms of fever, night sweats, weight loss, and an enlarged supraclavicular lymph node, which are classic signs of Hodgkin's lymphoma. The presence of a single enlarged supraclavicular lymph node is particularly concerning for malignancy. Influenza (choice A) typically presents with respiratory symptoms, not persistent lymphadenopathy. Sickle cell anemia (choice B) is a genetic disorder affecting red blood cells, not associated with the symptoms described. Leukemia (choice C) may present with similar symptoms but typically involves multiple lymph nodes, not a single enlarged node. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Hodgkin's disease.

Question 4 of 5

Timothy's arterial blood gas (ABG) results are as follows; pH 7.16; Paco2 80 mm Hg; Pao2 46 mm Hg; HCO3- 24mEq/L; Sao2 81%. This ABG result represents which of the following conditions?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, respiratory acidosis. The low pH (7.16) indicates acidosis, and the high Paco2 (80 mm Hg) suggests respiratory involvement. The Pao2 (46 mm Hg) is low, indicating hypoxemia. The HCO3- (24 mEq/L) is normal, ruling out metabolic acidosis. The Sao2 (81%) is also low, supporting respiratory acidosis due to poor oxygen exchange in the lungs. A: Metabolic acidosis - ruled out due to normal HCO3- B: Metabolic alkalosis - ruled out due to low pH and normal HCO3- D: Respiratory alkalosis - ruled out due to high Paco2 and low Pao2

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is aware that the following terms used to describe reduced cardiac output and perfusion impairment due to ineffective pumping of the heart is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice B (Cardiogenic shock) as the correct answer: 1. Cardiogenic shock refers to reduced cardiac output and perfusion impairment due to ineffective pumping of the heart. 2. In cardiogenic shock, the heart's ability to pump blood is compromised, leading to decreased circulation and inadequate perfusion. 3. Anaphylactic shock (choice A) is a severe allergic reaction, not related to cardiac function. 4. Distributive shock (choice C) involves widespread vasodilation and impaired blood flow regulation, not solely related to ineffective heart pumping. 5. Myocardial infarction (MI) (choice D) is a heart attack resulting from blocked blood flow to the heart, not directly related to reduced cardiac output.

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